A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a
patient indicates__?
A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence
Cytopathic effect is shown by_?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Spirochete
D. Anaerobe
Which of the following would you consider to
be general properties of viruses__?
A. New virus particle
arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
B. Fall in to the general size range of 200-300 angstrom unit
C. Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
D. Contain DNA but no RNA
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_?
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergilosis
Viruses can be cultured in all except_?
A. Chick embryo
B. Blood agar
C. Guinea pigs
D. Cell culture
Following hepatitis B infection through blood
transfusion disease manifests in_?
A. 1 week
B. 6 week
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
The Window period in HIV infection means__?
A. The time lapse
between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
B. The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
C. The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the
lab
D. None of the above
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_?
A. Red blood cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
D. Mast cells
The classic opportunistic infection in
acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_?
A. Apthous stomatitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Influenza is caused by_?
A. Orthomyxo virus,
which is a DNA virus
B. Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
C. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
D. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Human immune deficiency virus is_ virus?
A. Rheo
B. Retro
C. Rhabdo
D. Flavi
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic
inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_?
A. Pox virus
B. Measles virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. HIV
In which of the following immunization is
given after infection is started__?
A. Rabies
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Influenza
D. Herpes
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is__?
A. 7-14 days
B. 1 months
C. 1-2 years
D. 3-6 months
True about prions__?
A. Composed largely
proteins without any nucleic acid
B. Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
C. Viruses which are genetically deficient
D. Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is
defective
Pigs are important source of_?
A. Japanese
encephalitis
B. Kuru
C. Yellow fever
D. Rabies
Herpes virus_?
A. Acquires its envelope
from nuclear membrane
B. Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
C. Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
D. None of the above
The presence of Which of the following factors
in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
A. Enzymes
B. Protein coat
C. Polysaccharide
D. Lipids
Certain viruses have been isolated in
crytalline form and have been found to be_?
A. Nucleotides
B. Phospholipids
C. Scleroproteins
D. Nucleoproteins
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by
which of the following_?
A. Boiling
B. Ethanol
C. Cidex
D. All of the above
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_?
A. Gastrointestinal
tract
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Lung
D. Skin
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis
indicates_?
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
Which does not have a viral etiology__?
A. Carcinoma Cervix
B. Hepatoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Viron is defined as__?
A. Extracellular
infectious virus particle
B. Smallest virus
C. A smallest particle similar to virus
D. None of the above
One virus particle prevents multiplication of
2nd virus. This phenomena is__?
A. Viral interference
B. Mutation
C. Supervision
D. Permutation
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA,
is__?
A. Bunya virus
B. Reo virus
C. Calci virus
D. Rhabdo virus
Which of the following correctly indicates the
infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
A. HBCAg
B. HBeAg
C. Anti-HBC
D. Anti-HBS
Which of the following represents the
serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
A. HBs Ag
B. IgM anti – HBc
C. Anti HBs
D. None of the above
For the treatment of case of class III dog
bite, all of the following are correct except_?
A. Give
inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
B. Give ARV
C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
A. Measles virus
B. Herpes Virus
C. Papavo virus
D. Adeno virus
Following is a retrovirus_?
A. Immunodeficiency
virus
B. Influenza
C. Polio virus
D. Hepatitis virus
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with
carcinoma cervix_?
A. Type 6,12,18
B. 16,18,31
C. 6,8,11
D. 3,10,19
The viral action is differentiated from
bacterial action by___?
A. Interferon
production
B. Toxin production
C. Lymphocytes production
D. Neutrophils production
What is the sequence which a retro virus
follows on entering a host cell ?
A. RNA -DNA-RNA
B. RNA-DNA
C. DNA-RNA
D. DNA-RNA-DNA
Which of the following viruses appears to be
involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi’s sarcoma_?
A. Human Herpes Virus
3
B. Human Herpes Virus 1
C. Human Herpes Virus 8
D. Human Herpes Virus 4
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in__?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint
of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly.
Diagnosis of HIV is done by__?
A. ELISA
B. Western blot
C. P24 antigen
D. Lymph node biopsy
Anti HBsAB indicates__?
A. Resistance to
hepatitis B
B. Acute infection
C. Good prognosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis
indicates_?
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
Which of the following does not go into
chronic hepatitis stage ?
A. HBV
B. HCV
C. HDV
D. HEV
Which of the following belongs to cell
fraction derived vaccine__?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Hepatitis B
Dengue virus belongs to__?
A. Flavi virus
B. Togaviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
Which of the following statement about P24
antigen of HIV is Not True ?
A. It can be detected
during the window period
B. Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
C. Virus load parallel P24 titre
D. It remains during asymptomatic phase
Which of the following viruses are most likely
to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
A. Herpes Simplex
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Papilloma
Which of the following viruses produces both
intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_?
A. Chicken pox
B. Rabies
C. Small pox
D. Measles
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_?
A. Ribonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonuclease
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Parasite
D. Bacteria superadded on virus
Interferon interferes with replication of
virus at the time of_?
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA/RNA replication
C. When virus enters the cell
D. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Which of the following microbial cell is most
resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
A. Mycobacteria
B. Spore
C. Prions
D. Coccidia
Which of the following viruses does not infect
salivary glands ?
A. Echo virus
B. Hepatitis C
C. HIV
D. Orthomyxovirus
Which of the following lesions is NOT an
infection from human papilloma virus ?
A. Verruca vulgaris
B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Keratoacanthoma
Prions true is__?
A. Readily inactivated
by autoclave at 121 C
B. Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
C. Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
D. Contains DNA/ RNA
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant
hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis A virus
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission
of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is__?
A. Sialoperoxidase
B. Secretory IgA
C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
D. Histidine rich proteins
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3
months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the
medical board to do surgical practice. He is_?
A. Inactive carrier
B. Healthy carrier
C. Convalscent carrier
D. Paradoxical carrier
Virus is cultured in_?
A. Saubourd’s agar
B. Rogosa medium
C. Nonembryonated egg
D. Embryonated egg
Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4
Lymphocyte counts are_?
A. Above 600
B. Between 1000-2000
C. Below 200
D. Above 2000
Mark true in following ?
A. Hanta virus
pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
B. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
C. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
D. None of the above
The world german measles is applied for_?
A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by__?
A. IgM antibodies in
serum
B. Isolation form stool
C. Culture from blood
D. Isolation from bile
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
A. Cowpox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. chicken pox
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis
B is best done by__?
A. Surface antigen
B. Surface antibody
C. Core antigen
D. Core antibody
ELISA test when compared to western blot
technique is__?
A. Less sensitive less
specific
B. More sensitive, more specific
C. Less sensitive, more specific
D. More sensitive, less specific
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in
chronic hemolytic disease is_?
A. Adeno
B. Hepatitis
C. EB virus
D. Parvo virus
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind
specifically to__?
A. CD8 T-cells
B. CD4 T-cells
C. B – cells
D. NK – cells
The small nonparticulate protein leading to
enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is__?
A. HBc Ag
B. HBs Ag
C. Hbe Ag
D. HBx Ag
patients with organ transplants are most
frequently infected with__?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. CMV
D. EBV
EBV is responsible for all except__?
A. Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is__?
A. Carcinoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Melanoma
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually
impair the immune system by interference with__?
A. Helper T
lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the
following virus groups ?
A. Picorna viruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Hepadana viruses
D. Flavi viruses
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples
by cultivation in the following except_?
A. Tissue culture
B. Embryonated eggs
C. Animals
D. Chemically defined media
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_?
A. ELISA IS – ve
B. Western Blot is – ve
C. Both are – ve
D. PCR is – ve
Plaque test is used routinely in virology
lab’s for__?
A. Identification of
viral disease
B. To separate specific clone of virus
C. To maintain certain viral culture
D. To prepare vaccines
All are oncogenic except__?
A. Anopheles
B. Aedes
C. Culex
D. Mansoni
DNA covering material in a virus is called as__?
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
All are oncogenic except__?
A. EB virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
True about HIV are all except__?
A. DNA virus
B. Attacks CD4 cells
C. Macrophages are the reservoir
D. Decrease CD4 count in late stages
EBV causes all except___?
A. Carcinoma of
nasopharynx
B. Papilloma
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Burkitt’s lymphoma
Australian antigen is_?
A. HB Ag
B. HBs AG
C. HBV
D. None of the above
Which of the following methods is adopted for
screening HIV infection ?
A. Virus isolation
B. Western blot followed by ELISA
C. ELISA followed by western blot technique
D. Polymers chain reaction
Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B_?
A. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis E
D. Hepatitis F
True about immune response of hepatitis B is____?
A. Antibody of HBs Ag
is associated with resistance to infection
B. Antibody to HBC is not protective
C. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
D. CMI disappears soon after recover
The best way of detecting the presence of
viruses in the infected cell – culture is__?
A. Cytopathic changes
in culture cells
B. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
C. Haemagglutination test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test
The Dane particle is the__?
A. HBV
B. IgG anti HAV
C. Delta Virus
D. HBC Ag
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all
are true except__?
A. Failure to thrive
B. Have infections
C. 50% chances to have AIDS
D. All are true
The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s
spot and cutaneous rash in measles is__?
A. 24 Hrs
B. 3-4 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 1 days
Rabies virus__?
A. Cytotropic
B. Dermatotropic
C. Chromophilic
D. Neurotropic
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria
by_?
A. Presence of either
DNA or RNA
B. Simple structure
C. Complex multiplication
D. All of the above
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted
by faeco-oral route__?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis D virus
D. Hepatitis E virus
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_?
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western Blot
Bacteriophage was discovered by___?
A. Robert koch
B. Twort and d’herelle
C. Menkin
D. Metchinkoff
Australia antigen is associated with__?
A. Hepatitis B surface
antigen in acute hepatitis
B. AIDS
C. Chronic leukemia
D. Basal cell carcinoma
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?
A. in a week and reach
a peak in 3 weeks
B. only after one year
C. no antibodies are present in primary HSV
D. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is__?
A. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 3 months
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV
is_?
A. Chocolate agar
B. Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
C. Chorio allantoic membrane
D. Sabourad’s agar
All of the following infections may be
transmitted be dental instruments except__?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis E
HIV is transmitted by all of the following
routes except__?
A. Saliva
B. Needle prick injury
C. Blood transmission
D. Sexual intercourse
The mechanism by which most fungi caused
disease is_?
A. exotoxin production
B. lecithinase production
C. hypersensitivity
D. Coagulase production
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is_?
A. Penicillium
B. Aspergillus
C. Mucor
D. Rhizopus
SET 2
The culture media for fungus
is__________________?
A.
Tellurite medium
B. NNN medium
C. Chocolate agar medium
D. Sabourauds medium
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are
shaped_______________?
A.
Dot
B. Comma
C. Banana
D. Sickle
CD4 count in normal healthy adult
is_______________?
A.
5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
A 3 years old patient developed high
fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped
gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial
parasites is the causative agent ?
A.
Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malaria
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
Which is false about Wucheraria
bancrofti_________________?
A.
Causes filariasis
B. Body is slender and long
C. Terminal nuclei absent
D. Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Candida albicans causes all of the
following except______________?
A.
Endocarditis
B. Mycetoma
C. Meningitis
D. Oral thrush
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in
a patient indicates________________?
A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence
A person working in an abattoir presented
with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in
diagnosis______________?
A. Trichrome Methylene blue
B. Carbol Fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour White
Killer and Helper cells are part
of_______________?
A.
B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophage
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