1. Which vitamin is essential for red blood cells?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B9
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b. Vitamin B9

2. The chemical name of vitamin C is:
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Folic acid
d. Lactic acid
Answer: a. Ascorbic acid

3. Which vitamin deficiency affects vision?
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin A
d. Tocopherol
Answer: c. Vitamin A

4. Which of the following is the property of vitamin E?
a. Anti oxidant
b. Tocopherol
c. Fat-soluble vitamin
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

5. Which vitamin helps in blood clotting?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin D
Answer: c. Vitamin K

6. Who is known as the father of vitamins?
a. Robert Koch
b. Casimir Funk
c. Alexander
d. Faraday
Answer: b. Casimir Funk

7. Vitamins are:
a. Potent organic substances
b. Essential for growth
c. Not synthesized by human
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

8. Biotin is also known as:
a. A D E
b. Vitamin H
c. Vitamin K
d. None of these
Answer: b. Vitamin H

9. Vitamin A is also known as:
a. Retinol
b. Calciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Ergocalciferol
Answer: a. Retinol

10. Another name for Vitamin D2:
a. Retinol
b. Calciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phytonadione
Answer: b. Calciferol

11. Another name for vitamin E is:
a. Retinol
b. Calciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Ergocalciferol
Answer: c. Tocopherol

12. Folic acid was first isolated from:
a. Spinach leaves
b. Parcelley
c. Broccoli
d. Fenugreek leaves
Answer: a. Spinach leaves

13. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes photophobia?
a. Vitamin B2
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin B7
Answer: a. Vitamin B2

14. Which of the following vitamin has coenzyme function??
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

15. Which of the following is used as an antioxidant in pharmaceutical preparation?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B2
Answer: a. Vitamin C

16. Which of the following is the cause of short-term or acute vitamin A poisoning?
a. Too much vitamin A in your body
b. Too much vitamin K in your body
c. Too much vitamin C in your body
d. Too much vitamin E in your body
Answer: a. Too much vitamin A in your body

17. Which of the following nutrient is essential during the early stages of pregnancy?
a. Thiamin
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin E
d. Folic acid
Answer: d. Folic acid

18. Which of the following food sources has the highest levels of ascorbic acid??
a. Broccoli
b. Spinach
c. White potatoes
d. Black currants
Answer: d. Black currants

19. Which of the following is the leading cause of preventable blindness in children?
a. Vitamin C deficiency
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. Vitamin A deficiency
d. Vitamin D deficiency
Answer: c. Vitamin A deficiency

20. Which of the following disease is caused by the deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1)?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Blindness
c. Beriberi
d. Headaches
Answer: c. Beriberi

21. Who is most likely to get scurvy (a vitamin C deficiency)?
a. A malnourished child
b. A pregnant woman
c. Long-time smoker
d. A long-time alcoholic
Answer: d. A long-time alcoholic

22. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia?
a. Deficiency of vitamin B or vitamin C
b. Deficiency of vitamin B12 or vitamin B9
c. Deficiency of vitamin D or vitamin B6
d. Deficiency of vitamin B6 or vitamin B1
Answer: b. Deficiency of vitamin B12 or vitamin B9

23. Which of the following disease is caused by the deficiency of Niacin (vitamin B3)?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Blindness
c. Pellagra
d. Headaches
Answer: c. Pellagra

24. Which of the following vitamins serves as a hormone precursor??
a. Niacin
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b. Vitamin D

25. Which amino acid is a component of coenzyme A?
a. Pantothenic acid
b. Retinol
c. Retinoic acid
d. Folic acid
Answer: a. Pantothenic acid

26. Which of the following vitamins is also known as cobalamin??
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin B1
Answer: a. Vitamin B12

27. Choose the correct statement about Ascorbic acid?
a. It is a strong reducing agent
b. It shows antioxidant activity
c. Involved in the hydroxylation of prolyl
d. It can be synthesized in the body
Answer: d. It can be synthesized in the body

28. Choose the correct scientific name of Vitamin K?
a. Phytonadione
b. Tocopherol
c. Pantothenic Acid
d. Ascorbic acid
Answer: a. Phytonadione

1. Which is not a polymer of glucose?
a. Glycogen
b. Cellulose
c. Amylase
d. Inulin
Answer: d. Inulin

2. An essential for the conversion of glucose in the liver is:
a. UTP
b. GTP
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Guanosine
Answer: a. UTP

3. Glycogen synthesis is increased by which of the following?
a. Cortisone
b. Insulin
c. GH
d. Epinephrine
Answer: b. Insulin

4. Major contribution toward gluconeogenesis is by which of the following?
a. Lactate
b. Glycerol
c. Ketones
d. Alanine
Answer: a. Lactate

5. Which of the following organ is responsible for carbohydrate metabolism?
a. Liver
b. Muscles
c. Heart
d. Kidney
Answer: a. Liver

6. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by which of the following?
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Insulin
Answer: d. Insulin

7. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in:
a. Liver and kidney
b. Kidney and muscles
c. Kidneys and adipose tissue
d. Muscles and adipase tissue
Answer: d. Muscles and adipase tissue

8. Which of the following can utilize Lactate formed in muscles?
a. Rapopart-luebeling cycles
b. Glucose-alanine cycles
c. Cori’s cycles
d. Citric acid cycle
Answer: c. Cori’s cycles

9. The reaction of salivary amylase on starch leads to the formation of:
a. Lactose
b. Sucrose
c. Maltose
d. Neither of these
Answer: c. Maltose

10. Which of the following is the amphibolic pathway?
a. HMP shunt
b. Glycolysis
c. Citrus acid cycle
d. Gluconeogenesis
Answer: c. Citrus acid cycle

11. During starvation, ketone bodies are used as a fuel by:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Brain
c. Liver
d. Kidney
Answer: b. Brain

12. Which of the following is not a mucopolysaccharide?
a. Heparin
b. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Insulin
Answer: d. Insulin

13. Which sugar is found in the hemolymph of most insects?
a. Maltose
b. Lactose
c. Trehalose
d. Galactose
Answer: c. Trehalose

14. A starving person will first use which of the following?
a. Fats
b. Glycogen
c. Blood protein
d. Muscles protein
Answer: b. Glycogen

15. Which of the following sugar is found in ATP??
a. Deoxyribose
b. Ribose
c. Trehalose
d. Glucose
Answer: b. Ribose

16. Which of the following enzymes are not involved in galactose metabolism??
a. Galactokinase
b. Glucokinase
c. Galactose-1-Phosphate
d. UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase
Answer: b. Glucokinase

17. Which of the following enzymes leads to a disease known as Tarui’s disease?
a. Glucokinase
b. Pyruvate Kinase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Phosphoglucomutase
Answer: c. Phosphofructokinase

18. Which of the following enzyme deficiency leads to a disorder known as hemolytic anemia?
a. Glucokinase
b. Pyruvate Kinase
c. Phosphoglucomutase
d. Phosphofructokinase
Answer: b. Pyruvate Kinase

19. Which of the following is also known as the tricarboxylic acid (TCA)?
a. Acetic acid
b. Succinic acid
c. Oxaloacetic acid
d. Citric acid
Answer: d. Citric acid

20. Which of the following is responsible for carbohydrate metabolism?
a. Glucokinase
b. Pyruvate Kinase M2
c. Insulin
d. Phosphofructokinase
Answer: c. Insulin

21. Which of the following enzymes is defective in galactosemia (a rare, hereditary disorder of carbohydrate metabolism)?
a. Glucokinase
b. Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase
c. Galactokinase
d. UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase
Answer: b. Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase

22. Which of the following fructose transporter is important in fructose transport in the intestine?
a. GLUT3
b. GLUT4
c. GLUT5
d. GLUT7
Answer: c. GLUT5

23. Which metabolite negatively regulates pyruvate kinase??
a. 6-Bisphosphate
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Alanine
d. Citrate
Answer: c. Alanine

24. Choose the correct statement about the pyruvate is converted into lactate:
a. Lactate acts as the substrate for the formation of amino acid
b. Lactate is the substrate from the downstream pathway
c. During the product of lactate two ATP are produced
d. During lactate formation, NADH is reconverted into NAD
Answer: d. During lactate formation, NADH is reconverted into NAD

25. What is the rate-limiting step of glycolysis??
a. Enolase
b. Phosphohexose isomerase
c. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)
d. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Answer: c. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

26. What is the net gain of ATP per glucose during glycolysis??
a. 4 ATP
b. 5 ATP
c. 2 ATP
d. 1 ATP +1 GTP
Answer: c. 2 ATP

27. Which of the following hormone promotes gluconeogenesis during prolonged starvation?
a. Insulin
b. TSH
c. Glucagon
d. Thyroxine
Answer: c. Glucagon

1. Choose the examples of solid wastes from the following?
a. Garbage
b. Domestic material
c. Industrial material
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

2. Food waste, cardboard waste, and paper includes in the category of:
a. Domestic waste
b. Commercial waste
c. Industrial waste
d. Agricultural waste
Answer: a. Domestic waste

3. The waste generated from stores, and offices is known as:
a. Domestic waste
b. Commercial waste
c. Industrial waste
d. Agricultural waste
Answer: b. Commercial waste

4. The waste generated from industries during the manufacturing of products is:
a. Domestic waste
b. Commercial waste
c. Industrial waste
d. Agricultural waste
Answer: c. Industrial waste

5. The waste generated from planting, harvesting, and dead plants is known as:
a. Domestic waste
b. Commercial waste
c. Industrial waste
d. Agricultural waste
Answer: d. Agricultural waste

6. Which waste includes Petri dishes, surgical wraps, culture tubes, syringes, and needles:
a. Biochemical waste
b. Institutional waste
c. Hazardous waste
d. E-waste
Answer: a. Biochemical waste

7. How many major sources of solid waste are there based on their origin?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 9
d. 6
Answer: c. 9

8. The term ISWM refers to:
a. International solid waste management
b. Integrated solid waste management
c. Integrated solid waste machine
d. International solid waste mechanism
Answer: b. Integrated solid waste management

9. There are how many ways to treat waste thermally?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
Answer: b. 3

10. Which of the following gas is produced in open dumps from the decomposition of biodegradable wastes?
a. Nitrogen
b. Methane
c. Hydrogen
d. Helium
Answer: b. Methane

11. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
a. Source reduction
b. Recycling
c. Disposal
d. Burning
Answer: a. Source reduction

12. The number of functional components of solid waste management is:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: c. 6

13. What was the oldest way of waste disposal in the medieval era?
a. Recycling
b. Plasma Gasification
c. Landfill
d. Composting
Answer: c. Landfill

14. In which city for the first time waste removal system was established?
a. Athens
b. Mumbai
c. Belize
d. Byblos
Answer: a. Athens

15. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) is described by which kind of solid waste?
a. Toxic
b. Hazardous
c. Non-toxic
d. Non-hazardous
Answer: d. Non-hazardous

16. Which of the following plans is used as a waste management plan?
a. Plan for reprocessing
b. Plan for reuse
c. Plan for recycling
d. The integrated plan
Answer: d. The integrated plan

17. The organic material will decompose in the buried solid waste due to…?
a. The action of fungi
b. The soil particles
c. The action of microorganisms
d. The action oxidation
Answer: c. The action of microorganisms

18. Choose the correct example of Municipal Solid Waste (MSW):
a. Wood waste
b. Product packaging waste
c. Plastic cans
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

19. The process of burning municipal solid waste in a specifically designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions is known as?
a. Landfill
b. Incineration
c. Recycling
d. Vermicomposting
Answer: b. Incineration

20. Which of the following is the best method for the disposal of solid waste?
a. Landfilling
b. Recycling
c. Sea dumping process
d. Open Burning
Answer: b. Recycling

21. Choose the incorrect statement about plastic waste or plastic pollution?
a. It lasts for a longer period of time
b. It generates greenhouse gases
c. It is used to make compost
d. Toxic fumes are produced when burnt
Answer: c. It is used to make compost

22. Which of the following loses no quality during recycling and can be recycled forever?
a. Organic materials
b. Wood
c. Aluminium
d. Plastic
Answer: c. Aluminium

23. Which of the following gas is produced by the decomposition of organic material in landfills?
a. Oxygen
b. Biogas
c. Natural gas
d. Liquefied petroleum gas
Answer: b. Biogas

24. There are how many components or functional elements of integrated waste management (ISWM)?
a. Seven
b. Four
c. Ten
d. Two
Answer: b. Four

25. Choose the correct statement about zero waste management?
a. Segregation of garbage at the source
b. Separate collection of each kind of waste
c. Community involvement
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

1. Which organisms are found in human waste that causes water pollution?
a. Coliform bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Protozoa
d. Parasitic worms
Answer: a. Coliform bacteria

2. Which is the indicator of pollution in water?
a. Amount of oxygen
b. Amount of hydrogen
c. Amount of BOD
d. Amount of nitrogen
Answer: c. Amount of BOD

3. What is the reason that certain parts of water bodies contain more algae?
a. Due to favorable environment
b. Due to run-off excess fertilizers
c. Due to lack of fertilizers
d. Due to water pollution
Answer: b. Due to run-off excess fertilizers

4. What are water-soluble inorganic chemicals?
a. Compound of pure metals
b. Compound of non-metal
c. Compounds of synthetic metals
d. Compounds of toxic metals
Answer: d. Compounds of toxic metals

5. When does sediment of suspended matter occur?
a. When soil is eroded from air
b. When soil is eroded from land
c. When soil is eroded from water
d. When soil is eroded by rock
Answer: c. When soil is eroded from water

6. What is a sediment of suspended matter?
a. Insoluble particles of soil and other solids
b. Soluble particles of soil and other solids
c. Insoluble particles of water
d. Soluble particles of water
Answer: b. Soluble particles of soil and other solids

7. Where are water-soluble radioactive isotopes found?
a. In radioactive reactor
b. In radioactive coolant
c. In radioactive shield
d. In radioactive waste
Answer: d. In radioactive waste

8. Why the thermal pollution causes the release of hot water?
a. They increase the solubility of oxygen
b. They decrease the solubility of oxygen
c. They dissolve oxygen
d. They dissolve nitrogen
Answer: b. They decrease the solubility of oxygen

9. Hard water does not form lather because of the presence of:
a. Flouride ion
b. Calcium ion and magnesium ion
c. Sodium and potassium ion
d. Rocks
Answer: b. Calcium ion and magnesium ion

10. How many types of the hardness of water are there?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six
Answer: a. Two

11. What is the other name for the temporary hardness of water?
a. Constant hardness
b. Continuous hardness
c. Carbonate hardness
d. Affiliated hardness
Answer: c. Carbonate hardness

12. Which reagents are present in temporary hardness?
a. Bicarbonates
b. Carbonates
c. Chlorides
d. Sulfates
Answer: a. Bicarbonates

13. The permanent hardness is also known as:
a. Bicarbonate hardness
b. Non-carbonate hardness
c. Carbonate hardness
d. Constant hardness
Answer: b. Non-carbonate hardness

14. What is the permissible limit of pH preferred for potable water?
a. 7-8.5 ppm
b. 6.5-9ppm
c. 10-14ppm
d. 1-7ppm
Answer: b. 6.5-9ppm

15. What is the amount of oxygen required to oxidize organic matter in sewage?
a. Turbidity
b. Biological oxygen demand
c. Chemical oxygen demand
d. Chemical oxygen demand
Answer: b. Biological oxygen demand

16. Which of the following rivers is called the most polluted river in the world?
a. Citarum River, Indonesia
b. Yellow River, China
c. Ganga River, India
d. Ravi River, Pakistan
Answer: c. Ganga River, India

17. Which of the following are the main causes of water pollution?
a. Industrial Waste
b. Marine Dumping
c. Sewage and Wastewater
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

18. What of the following is the best method to reduce total dissolved solids (TDS) in the water?
a. Reverse Osmosis
b. Distillation
c. Ion exchange
d. All of these
Answer: a. Reverse Osmosis

19. Which of the following salt is the main cause of the permanent hardness of water?
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Magnesium carbonate
c. Magnesium bicarbonate
d. All of these
Answer: a. Magnesium sulfate

20. A technique that is used to determine the concentration of odor compounds in the given water sample is…?
a. Flushing
b. Stripping
c. Chlorination
d. Settling
Answer: b. Stripping

21. Choose the correct example of waterborne disease:
a. Cholera
b. Typhoid
c. Polio
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

22. Arsenic gets into drinking water from…?
a. Industrial waste
b. Agricultural pollution
c. Natural rock formations
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

23. An algal bloom is mostly caused by the presence of…?
a. Carbon
b. Magnesium bicarbonate
c. Nitrogen and phosphorus present in water
d. Magnesium sulfate
Answer: c. Nitrogen and phosphorus present in water

24. Which of the following diseases or infections is caused due to contaminated water and poor sanitation?
a. Cholera
b. Typhoid
c. Hepatitis A
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

25. Choose the correct statement about the composition of Calcium Carbonate (CaCo3) in soft water?
a. 90 to 120 milligrams of CaCO3 per liter
b. 0 to 30 milligrams of CaCO3 per liter
c. 60 to 90 milligrams of CaCO3 per liter
d. 30 to 60 milligrams of CaCO3 per liter
Answer: d. 30 to 60 milligrams of CaCO3 per liter

26. Temporary hardness of water is caused by the presence of…?
a. Calcium sulfate
b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Magnesium carbonate
d. Magnesium chloride
Answer: c. Magnesium carbonate

27. The water having less than 1000 mg/liter of total dissolved solids is known as…?
a. Brine water
b. Slightly saline
c. Freshwater
d. Moderately saline
Answer: c. Freshwater

28. Which of the following units are used to measure the turbidity of water?
a. NTU – Nephelometric Turbidity Units
b. FNU – Formazin Nephelometric Unit
c. EAU – Formazin Attenuation Units
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

29. Which of the following is NOT a waterborne disease?
a. Asthma
b. Cholera
c. Typhoid
d. Hepatitis
Answer: a. Asthma

1. Who recognized lysosomes as separate organelle?
a. De Duve
b. De Varies
c. Schleiden
d. Palade
Answer: a. De Duve

2. Lysosomal sacs are rich in
a. Reductases and oxidases
b. Acid phosphatase and hydrolytic enzymes
c. Only acid phosphatase
d. Dehtdrogenases
Answer: b. Acid phosphatase and hydrolytic enzymes

3. What of the following is relevant to the term autophagosome?
a. Food vacuole
b. Secondary lysosomes
c. Digestive vacuole
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

4. A single-layered membranous organelle is:
a. Mesosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. Centrosome
d. Nucleus
Answer: b. Lysosomes

5. Lysosomes are reservoirs of:
a. RNA
b. Lipids
c. Hydrolytic enzymes
d. Glycoproteins
Answer: c. Hydrolytic enzymes

6. An engulfed cell organelle and Golgi vesicle are collectively known as?
a. Peroxisome
b. Food vacuole
c. Secondary lysosomes
d. Digestive vacuole
Answer: c. Secondary lysosomes

7. Autophagy is a feature of which of the following?
a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Peroxisome
d. All of mentioned above
Answer: b. Lysosomes

8. Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosome?
a. Phagocytosis
b. Apoptosis
c. Autophagy
d. Energy generation
Answer: d. Energy generation

9. The process in which parts of cells are digested to produce energy is known as:
a. Lactation
b. Starvation
c. Assimilation
d. Ingestion
Answer: b. Starvation

10. Which of the following are also known as suicidal bags?
a. Peroxisome
b. Lysosomes
c. Glyoxisome
d. Golgi apparatus
Answer: b. Lysosomes

11. Which cells are affected in Tay-Sachs disease due to the accumulation of lipids?
a. Liver cells
b. Muscle cells
c. brain cells
d. Kidney cells
Answer: c. brain cells

12. Which cells are most appropriate to study lysosomes?
a. White blood cells
b. Nerve cells
c. muscle fibres
d. Leaf mesophyll
Answer: a. White blood cells

13. The lysosomes which eat parts of their own cell are known as:
a. Autophagosome
b. Primary Lysosomes
c. All options
d. Peroxisomes
Answer: a. Autophagosome

14. Which of the following are causes of storage diseases?
a. Storage of glycolipids
b. Lack of enzymes
c. Mutations
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

15. In the disease glycogenosis type II, glycogen fills the liver and…?
a. Pancreas
b. Lungs
c. Kidneys
d. Muscles
Answer: d. Muscles

16. Lysosomal membranes are rich in…?
a. Cardiolipin
b. Sterols
c. Sialic acid
d. All of these
Answer: c. Sialic acid

17. In which of the following cells Lysosomes are absent?
a. Muscles cells
b. Hepatocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Animal cells
Answer: c. Erythrocytes

18. What is the pH of a lysosome in nature?
a. Depends on the cell type
b. Neutral
c. Basic
d. Acidic
Answer: d. Acidic

19. Which of the following enzymes are defined as lysosomal marker enzymes?
a. Phospholipase
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d. Succinate dehydrogenase
Answer: b. Acid phosphatase

20. Choose the correct statement about the acidic pH of lysosomes:
a. Presence of anabolic enzymes
b. Deposition of waste materials
c. Presence of hydrolytic enzymes
d. All of these
Answer: a. Presence of anabolic enzymes

21. Which of the following organelle is known as Perinuclear dense bodies?
a. Nucleolus
b. Lysosomes
c. Peroxisome
d. All of these
Answer: b. Lysosomes

22. Which of the following staining technique is used to locate the lysosomes?
a. Bismarck stain
b. Gomori stain
c. Osmium tetroxide
d. Janus Green Staining
Answer: b. Gomori stain

23. Lysosomes are considered the “garbage trucks” of a cell because:
a. They transport materials between two cell organelles
b. They pump materials from outside to the inside of a cell
c. They remove all unwanted cellular materials
d. They transport materials from one cell to another
Answer: c. They remove all unwanted cellular materials

24. Which of the following is a membrane-bound cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes?
a. Lysosome
b. Ribosome
c. Golgi Body
d. All of these
Answer: a. Lysosome

25. Lysosomes are found in all animal cells, but are most active in…?
a. Skin cells
b. Brain cells
c. Intestinal cells
d. White blood cells
Answer: d. White blood cells

1. Who was the first scientist to coin the term SMOG?
a. Nikola Tesla
b. Stephen Hawking
c. Dr. Henry Antonie
d. Nicolaus Copernicus
Answer: c. Dr. Henry Antonie

2. Which of the following are responsible for the cause of smog?
a. From incinerators
b. Emissions from vehicles
c. Fireworks
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

3. Which of the following is called secondary air pollutants?
a. PANs
b. Ozone
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Nitrogen dioxide
Answer: b. Ozone

4. Which of the following is called a particulate pollutant?
a. Ozone
b. Radon
c. Fly ash
d. Ethylene
Answer: c. Fly ash

5. Which statement is true about smog?
a. Smog is derived from fog
b. Smog is derived from smoke
c. Smog is derived from both fog and smoke
d. Smog is derived from water vapors
Answer: c. Smog is derived from both fog and smoke

6. Which precautions should be taken to survive when the ozone level is high?
a. Drive less
b. Stay hydrated
c. Stay indoors
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

7. Which of the following is true about the air quality index?
a. It indicates the color of air
b. It predicts ozone levels in area
c. It determines the intensity of sound pollution
d. It estimates sulfur content in the air
Answer: b. It predicts ozone levels in the area

8. Which is the major photochemical Smog?
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Chlorofluorocarbon
c. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
d. All of mentioned above
Answer: b. Chlorofluorocarbon

9. Which diseases are caused by smog?
a. Rickets
b. Bronchitis
c. Breathing problems
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

10. DDT and aluminum cans are examples of which pollutants?
a. Primary pollutants
b. Secondary pollutants
c. Non-biodegradable pollutants
d. Biodegradable pollutants
Answer: c. Non-biodegradable pollutants

11. How many primary pollutants contribute about 90% of global air pollution?
a. Three
b. Five
c. Seven
d. Ten
Answer: b. Five

12. Which of the following is mainly responsible for the secondary pollutants?
a. Smog and ozone
b. Sulfur trioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

13. Which gas is more in percentage in the air?
a. Oxygen gas
b. Nitrogen gas
c. Water vapor
d. Carbon dioxide
Answer: b. Nitrogen gas

14. Which of the following is the result of the increased level of air pollution?
a. Soil erosion
b. Global warming
c. Respiratory problem
d. All of the mentioned above
Answer: c. Respiratory problem

15. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a pollutant because:
a. It reacts with O2
b. Reacts with hemoglobin
c. Reacts with Ozone
d. It inhibits glycolysis
Answer: b. Reacts with hemoglobin

16. Most of the high-level supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of:
a. O2 layer
b. O3 layer
c. CO layer
d. SO2 layer
Answer: b. O3 layer

17. Choose the correct statement about the greenhouse effect:
a. Caused by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
b. Caused by the combination of many gases
c. Caused by CO2
d. Caused by SO2 and O3
Answer: a. Caused by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases

18. All are particulate pollutants except:
a. Ozone
b. Smoke
c. Soot
d. Dust
Answer: a. Ozone

19. Minute organic or inorganic particles suspended in the atmosphere are known as:
a. Gaseous pollutant
b. Smoky Pollutant
c. Airsols
d. Aerosols
Answer: d. Aerosols

20. Global warming is caused by which of the following gas?
a. CO2
b. O3
c. CO
d. SO2
Answer: a. CO2

21. Which of the following gas can deplete the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
a. Methane
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Sulfur dioxide
Answer: a. Methane

22. Which of the following is the major component of photochemical smog?
a. Ozone
b. Acrolein
c. Chlorofluorocarbon
d. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Answer: c. Chlorofluorocarbon

1. Which of the following components of food is responsible for the growth and repair of our body?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Vitamins and minerals
c. Proteins
d. Fats
Answer: c. Proteins

2. Protective foods are the foods which provide us…?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins and minerals
d. Fats
Answer: c. Vitamins and minerals

3. Which of the following solution is used for testing carbohydrates in food?
a. Caustic soda solution
b. Iodine solution
c. Copper sulphate solution
d. None of mentioned above
Answer: b. Iodine solution

4. Which of the following nutrient is lost when fruits and vegetables are washed after cutting them?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins
d. Fats
Answer: c. Vitamins

5. Foods that provide proteins are called?
a. Bodybuilding foods
b. Protective foods
c. Energy giving foods
d. Essential foods
Answer: a. Bodybuilding foods

6. Night blindness is caused by deficiency of which vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: a. Vitamin A

7. Which of the following helps to absorb nutrients from food and throw out waste from the body as sweat and urine?
a. Dietary fibre
b. Vitamin
c. Water
d. Minerals
Answer: c. Water

8. Our body prepares which of the following vitamin in presence of sunlight?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
Answer: c. Vitamin D

9. Which of the following mineral is required to keep our bones, muscles and teeth healthy?
a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Phosphorous
d. Iodine
Answer: a. Calcium

10. Oily patch paper test is done to determine the presence of which nutrient in food?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
Answer: a. Fats

11. Iodine deficiency in the body causes which disease?
a. Scurvy
b. Goitre
c. Beri beri
d. Anaemia
Answer: b. Goitre

12. What is the important function of dietary fibres in food?
a. Helps in digestion
b. Provides energy
c. Bodybuilding
d. Prevention of diseases
Answer: a. Helps in digestion

13. Which of the following disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin D?
a. Beri Beri
b. Rickets
c. Poor vision
d. Bleeding gums
Answer: b. Rickets

14. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin B
Answer: d. Vitamin B

15. All the essential components present in food are collectively called:
a. Fibres
b. Fabrics
c. Nutrients
d. Nutritious
Answer: c. Nutrients

16. Which of the following components are the major nutrients in our food?
a. Vitamins and minerals
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

17. Which of the following is the primary source of energy for our body?
a. Vitamins and minerals
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. All of these
Answer: c. Carbohydrates

18. Which of the following are the sources of dietary fibre?
a. Beans
b. Whole grains
c. Brown rice
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

19. Which of the following are the healthiest sources of animal protein?
a. White-meat poultry
b. Fish
c. Eggs
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

20. Which of the following is the best plant-based proteins?
a. Milk
b. Legumes
c. Eggs
d. Cheese
Answer: b. Legumes

21. Which of the following statement is not correct about nutrients in milk?
a. Milk is a good source of vitamin D
b. Milk is a good source of vitamin C
c. Milk is a good source of protein
d. Milk is a good source of calcium
Answer: b. Milk is a good source of vitamin C

22. Potatoes, beans, cereals, pulses and oats are rich in…?
a. Vitamins
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Minerals
Answer: c. Carbohydrates

23. The most significant and essential minerals required for our body are…?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

1. What kind of defense barrier is provided by the mucous membrane of the body?
a. Physical barrier
b. Mechanical barrier
c. Chemical barrier
d. Biological barrier
Answer: a. Physical barrier

2. Antibodies disappear very quickly in which immunity?
a. Active immunity
b. Naturally induced immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Autoimmune response
Answer: c. Passive immunity

3. Which portion of antibody structure is occupied by variable chains?
a. Lower region
b. In between the chains
c. Upper region
d. Middle region
Answer: c. Upper region

4. How many types of antibodies are present?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
Answer: b. 5

5. B lymphocytes is related to:
a. Bursa Fabricius
b. Thymus gland
c. Bacteria
d. None of mentioned above
Answer: a. Bursa Fabricius

6. Plasma cells are formed by?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. A lymphocytes
d. None of these
Answer: b. B lymphocytes

7. T lymphocytes are produced by:
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus gland
c. Spleen
d. Both a and b
Answer: b. Thymus gland

8. Which of the following produces monoclonal antibodies?
a. Fermentation technology
b. Genetic engineering
c. Hybridoma technology
d. Polymerase chain reaction
Answer: c. Hybridoma technology

9. Pasteur developed the vaccination for:
a. Rabies
b. Anthrax
c. Chicken cholera
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

10. Instant and immediate protection obtained through:
a. Active immunity
b. Natural induced immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Vaccination
Answer: c. Passive immunity

11. Which of the following is serum hepatitis?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HAV
d. HIV
Answer: a. HBV

12. Antigen binding site on Immunoglobulin is located in:
a. Light chain
b. Fc region of antibody
c. Heavy chain
d. Fab region of antibody
Answer: d. Fab region of antibody

13. Immunity in which lymphocytes recognizes the antigen and micro-organisms is called as:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Cell-mediated immunity
c. Tissue grafting
d. Humeral immunity
Answer: b. Cell-mediated immunity

14. In an antigen haptens are:
a. Immunogenic
b. Non-Immunogenic
c. Antigenic
d. None of these
Answer: a. Immunogenic

15. The antibody that is first formed after infection is:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
Answer: b. IgM

16. Which of the following system’s job is to protect our body against disease-causing microbes?
a. Digestive system
b. Immune system
c. Excretory system
d. Respiratory system
Answer: b. Immune system

17. Which of the following immunity is present when you are born?
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Passive immunity
Answer: a. Innate immunity

18. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes are examples of…?
a. Cellular barriers
b. Cytokine barriers
c. Physiological barriers
d. Physical barrier
Answer: a. Cellular barriers

19. The T and B lymphocytes are two types of cells involved in…?
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. None of these
Answer: b. Acquired immunity

20. The common diseases caused by a poor immune system include…?
a. Deficiency diseases
b. Epidemic Diseases
c. Autoimmune diseases
d. Hereditary diseases
Answer: b. Epidemic Diseases

21. Choose the correct statement about Passive Immunity?
a. This immunity causes reactions
b. This immunity protection is immediate
c. Passive immunity lasts only for a few weeks or months
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

22. The study of the immune system in all organisms is known as?
a. Microbiology
b. Botany
c. Biotechnology
d. Immunology
Answer: d. Immunology

23. Which of these cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?
a. Both T and B cells
b. Mast cells
c. T-cells
d. B-cells
Answer: c. T-cells

24. Which of the following immunity is long-lasting and sometimes life-long?
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Active immunity
Answer: d. Active immunity

25. Which of these does NOT act as a protecting barrier for the body surface?
a. Mucus
b. Skin
c. Salivary amylase
d. Gastric acid
Answer: c. Salivary amylase

26. Which of the following cells is involved in humoral immunity??
a. Both T and B cells
b. Mast cells
c. T-cells
d. B-cells
Answer: d. B-cells

27. Which of the following immunity do you develop over your lifetime?
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Active immunity
Answer: b. Acquired immunity

28. The skin, body hair, cilia, eyelashes, the respiratory tract, and endothelia throughout the body serve as?
a. Cellular barriers
b. Physical barrier
c. Cytokine barriers
d. Physiological barriers
Answer: b. Physical barrier

29. Which of the following cells are involved in Innate Immunity?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Natural Killer Cells
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

30. Which of the following is called the first line of defense in the immune response?
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Active immunity
Answer: a. Innate immunity

1. Which of the following human disease causes inflammation of the brain?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Encephalitis
c. Cholera
d. Tuberculosis
Answer: b. Encephalitis

2. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?
a. Typhoid
b. Bacilliary dysentery
c. Tuberculosis
d. Amoebic dysentery
Answer: d. Amoebic dysentery

3. Which of the following is a viral disease?
a. Diphtheria
b. Giardiasis
c. Leprosy
d. influenza
Answer: d. influenza

4. Malaria is transmitted by which mosquito?
a. Female anopheles
b. Male anopheles
c. Aedes mosquito
d. None of mentioned above
Answer: a. Female anopheles

5. Which one of the following is not STD (sexually transmitted diseases)?
a. AIDS
b. Symphilis
c. Kala azar
d. Gonorrhea
Answer: c. Kala-azar

6. The disease SARS stands for?
a. Severe acute renal syndrome
b. Simple acute respiratory syndrome
c. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
d. None of mentioned above
Answer: c. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

7. Covid -19 is caused by:
a. SARS Cov-2
b. SARS CoV-1
c. Rhinovirus
d. Coronavirus
Answer: a. SARS Cov-2

8. Which of the following is caused by a virus?
a. Cholera, tuberculosis
b. AIDS, Syphilis
c. Rabies, Mumps
d. Typhoid, tetanus
Answer: c. Rabies, Mumps

9. Mumps is an infection of?
a. Parotid gland
b. Pancreas
c. Pituitary gland
d. Thyroid gland
Answer: a. Parotid gland

10. Causative virus of chickenpox is:
a. Bacteriophage
b. Varicella virus
c. Rhabdovirus
d. HIV
Answer: b. Varicella virus

11. Which of the following disease is called hydrophobia?
a. Dengue
b. Hepatitis
c. Measles
d. Rabies
Answer: d. Rabies

12. Which of the following diseases are caused due to virus?
a. Ebola
b. AIDS
c. SARS
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

13. Virus can spread through:
a. Contaminated food or water
b. Touch
c. Coughing
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

14. Viruses can only multiply in:
a. Soil
b. Living tissues
c. Dead tissues
d. None of these
Answer: b. Living tissues

15. Viral disease can be prevented by?
a. Antibiotics
b. Antipyretic
c. Vaccination
d. Tranquilizers
Answer: c. Vaccination

16. Diseases that spread from one person to another are known as?
a. Non-communicable diseases
b. Degenerative diseases
c. Communicable diseases
d. All of these
Answer:

17. The deficiency of which vitamin causes Night blindness?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B
Answer: b. Vitamin A

18. Choose the correct example of non-communicable diseases:
a. Cancer
b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

19. Alzheimer’s disease (AD) and osteoporosis are both examples of…?
a. Deficiency diseases
b. Non-communicable diseases
c. Communicable diseases
d. Degenerative disease
Answer: d. Degenerative disease

20. Which of the following vitamin deficiency increases the risk of excessive bleeding?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B
Answer: a. Vitamin K

21. Which of the following mineral deficiency is the most common cause of goiter?
a. Iodine
b. Iron
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus
Answer: a. Iodine

22. Choose the correct example of Hereditary diseases:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Haemophilia
c. Sickle-cell anemia
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

23. Which of the following diseases is caused by various bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites?
a. Degenerative diseases
b. Hereditary diseases
c. Deficiency diseases
d. Infectious diseases
Answer: d. Infectious diseases

24. Which of the following diseases is caused by protein deficiency in the body?
a. Anaemia
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Kwashiorkor
d. Haemophilia
Answer: c. Kwashiorkor

25. All deficiency diseases can be prevented by…?
a. Get regular exercise
b. Stay at home if you are sick
c. Taking a balanced diet
d. Avoid too much alcohol
Answer: c. Taking a balanced diet

26. Chickenpox, common cold, diphtheria, and AIDS are examples of…?
a. Degenerative diseases
b. Hereditary diseases
c. Deficiency diseases
d. Infectious diseases
Answer: d. Infectious diseases

27. Which of the following vitamin helps to make various proteins that are needed for blood clotting?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B
Answer: a. Vitamin K

28. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes weakness in muscles?
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B
Answer: a. Vitamin E

29. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes Xerophthalmia?
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B
Answer: b. Vitamin A

30. Penicillins, doxycycline, cephalexin, and azithromycin are examples of…?
a. Bacteria
b. Antibiotics
c. Vaccines
d. Viruses
Answer: b. Antibiotics

1. Entomology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of:
a. Birds
b. Mammals
c. Insects
d. Reptiles
Answer: c. Insects

2. Which of the following is the smallest order of class Insecta?
a. Hemiptera
b. Odonta
c. Zeroptera
d. Coleoptera
Answer: c. Zeroptera

3. Who coined the term pest management?
a. Geier
b. Bartlett
c. Dr. Perry
d. Dr. Ray F. Smith
Answer: a. Geier

4. Piercing and sucking type of mouthparts are found in:
a. Cotton leaf roller
b. Coton jassid
c. Mustard aphid
d. Pink bollworm
Answer: c. Mustard aphid

5. Pollination by beetles is known as:
a. Melittophily
b. Myophily
c. Cantharophily
d. Myrmecophily
Answer: c. Cantharophily

6. Law of tolerance was proposed by:
a. Victor Shelford
b. F. F Blackman
c. Justus Liebig
d. Carl Mobius
Answer: a. Victor Shelford

7. The scientific name of the banana aphid is:
a. Thrips florum
b. Pentalonia nigroneruosa
c. cosmopolites sordidus
d. Yirachola Isocrates
Answer: b. Pentalonia nigroneruosa

8. Pheromones are synthesized by:
a. Thoracic glands
b. Glandular epidermal cells
c. Neuro secretory cells
d. All of mentioned above
Answer: b. Glandular epidermal cells

9. Sanjose scale is a pest of:
a. Almond and apple
b. Pear and plum
c. Mango and guava
d. Banana and papaya
Answer: a. Almond and apple

10. Bagging of pomegranate fruits with polythene cover is done to avoid damage from:
a. Butterfly sucking moth
b. Fruit borer
c. Shoot hole borer
d. Fruit fly
Answer: a. Butterfly sucking moth

11. Ladybird beetle is a predator of:
a. Aphid
b. Scale insect
c. Mites
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

12. The best method of controlling stored grain pests is:
a. Fumigation
b. Systemic insecticides
c. Proper drying and storage
d. Biological agents
Answer: a. Fumigation

13. Stripping of sugarcane leaves minimizes the attack of:
a. Mealybugs
b. Pyrilla
c. Early shoot borer
d. Top shoot borer
Answer: a. Mealybugs

14. The pest which attacks both infield and storage of pulses:
a. Pulse beetle
b. Gram pod borer
c. Red gram pod fly
d. Pod borer
Answer: a. Pulse beetle

15. Class Insecta has how many subclasses?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: b. 2

16. Choose the correct statement about Entomology:
a. The study of Birds
b. The study of Insects
c. The study of Microbes
d. The study of plants
Answer: b. The study of Insects

17. What are the main characteristics of insects?
a. Insects have three main body parts
b. Three pairs of legs
c. Two pairs of wings
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

18. The resting and inactive stage in the insect life cycle is known as:
a. The egg stage
b. The Larva stage
c. The Adult stage
d. The pupa stage
Answer: d. The pupa stage

19. Which of the following is NOT a natural predator of brown planthopper (BPH)?
a. Red ants
b. Water striders
c. Bugs
d. Spiders
Answer: a. Red ants

20. Insects that feed on one type of food are known as:
a. Monophagous
b. Polyphagous
c. Omnivorous insects
d. Entomophagy
Answer: a. Monophagous

21. Insects belong to the phylum…?
a. Nematoda
b. Arthropoda
c. Mollusca
d. Platyhelminthes
Answer: b. Arthropoda

22. Which of the following insects is the carrier of grassy stunt pathogenic virus?
a. Red ants
b. Pink ants
c. Mollusca
d. Leafhoppers
Answer: d. Leafhoppers

23. Choose the correct statement about Entomophagy:
a. Refers to eating birds
b. Refers to eating insects
c. Refers to eating Microbes
d. Refers to eating fishes
Answer: b. Refers to eating insects

24. The larval stage of the mustard sawfly has how many legs?
a. 3 pairs
b. 2 pairs
c. 8 pairs
d. 10 pairs
Answer: c. 8 pairs

25. Choose the correct statement about the holometabolous insects:
a. These insects undergo complete metamorphosis
b. These insects undergo incomplete metamorphosis
c. These insects undergo partial metamorphosis
d. None of these
Answer: a. These insects undergo complete metamorphosis

26. Which of the following is NOT a part of the insect head?
a. Pronotum
b. Vertex
c. Antennae
d. Tentorium
Answer: a. Pronotum

27. Odontotermes obesus is the scientific name of…?
a. Cutworm
b. Red ant
c. Termite
d. Shoot borer
Answer: c. Termite

28. The process of killing pupa without changing the cocoon shell layer is known as:
a. Denier
b. Dupion
c. Stifling
d. Reeling
Answer: c. Stifling

29. Choose the correct statement about the immature scale insects?
a. Sliders
b. Crawlers
c. Gliders
d. None of these
Answer: b. Crawlers

30. The excreta of the earthworm is known as?
a. Vermi-manure
b. Vermicompost
c. Vermicast
d. All of these
Answer: c. Vermicast

31. The middle segment, behind the head and before the abdomen is known as?
a. Abdomen
b. Head
c. Thorax
d. None of these
Answer: c. Thorax

32. Choose the correct statement about why spiders are not classified into insects?
a. Spiders are venomous
b. Spiders have eight legs
c. Spiders have 2 division in their bodies
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

33. Choose the correct statement about the anatomy of a cockroach?
a. A pair of testes are present in the 2nd segment
b. A pair of ovaries are present in the 4th segment
c. The abdomen region of a cockroach is divided into 10 segments
d. The thorax of a cockroach is divided into 6 segments
Answer: c. The abdomen region of a cockroach is divided into 10 segments

34. Bugs breathe through holes on the outside of their bodies which are known as?
a. Gills
b. Nose
c. Nostrils
d. Spiracles
Answer: d. Spiracles

1. The repeating unit of proteins are:
a. Glucose units
b. Amino acids
c. Fatty acids
d. Peptides
Answer: b. Amino acids

2. Choose the correct statement about the proteins:
a. Proteins are polymers of amino acids
b. Proteins are polymers of glucose
c. Proteins are polymers of peptide bonds
d. Proteins are polymers of disulfide bridges
Answer: a. Proteins are polymers of amino acids

3. The most abundant protein in the animal world is:
a. Collagen
b. Keratin
c. Rubisco
d. Hemoglobin
Answer: a. Collagen

4. The structure of proteins can be destroyed by which rays?
a. Infrared rays
b. Ultraviolet rays
c. Radio waves
d. Microwaves
Answer: b. Ultraviolet rays

a. Types of amino acids
b. Structure and function
c. numbers of amino acids
d. None of mentioned above
Answer: b. Structure and function

6. Which is the most common secondary structure of protein?
a. α helix
b. β pleated sheet
c. β Pleated sheet parallel
d. β Pleated sheet non-parallel
Answer: a. α helix

7. Myoglobin is a low molecular weight oxygen-binding heme protein:
a. Protein with primary structure
b. Protein with secondary structure
c. Protein with tertiary structure
d. Protein with quaternary structure
Answer: c. Protein with tertiary structure

8. Fibrous protein consists of polypeptides chains arranged in:
a. α helix
b. β pleated sheet
c. β helix
d. none of these
Answer: b. β pleated sheet

9. α helix has:
a. 3.4 amino acid residue/turn
b. 3.0 amino acid/turn
c. 3.8 amino acid/turn
d. 3.6 amino acid/turn
Answer: d. 3.6 amino acid/turn

10. Tertiary structure is maintained by:
a. Peptide bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. disulfide bond
d. All of mentioned above
Answer: d. All of mentioned above

a. Primary structure
b. Quaternary structure
c. Secondary structure
d. Tertiary structure
Answer: b. Quaternary structure

12. Disulphide bonds are formed between:
a. Cysteine residue that are close together
b. Hemoglobin residue that are close together
c. Proline residues that are close together
d. Histidine residue that are close together
Answer: a. Cysteine residue that are close together

13. The primary structure of protein represents:
a. The linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. 3-dimensional structure of protein
c. The helical structure of protein
d. Subunit structure of protein
Answer: a. The linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond

14. Which of the following factor is responsible for the denaturation of protein?
a. pH change
b. Organic solvents
c. Heat
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

15. Which of the following is responsible for specifying the three-dimensional shape of a protein?
a. The peptide bond
b. Interaction with other polypeptides
c. Interaction with molecular chaperons
d. The amino acid sequence
Answer: d. The amino acid sequence

16. Which of the following is NOT the classified form of conjugated proteins?
a. Glycoproteins
b. Lipoproteins
c. Complete proteins
d. Metalloproteins
Answer: c. Complete proteins

17. What is the average molecular weight of an amino acid?
a. 100 Da
b. 120 Da
c. 110 Da
d. 50 Da
Answer: c. 110 Da

18. Which of the following protein was first sequenced by Frederick Sanger?
a. Insulin
b. Myosin
c. Myoglobin
d. Hemoglobin
Answer: a. Insulin

19. Choose the correct statement about the proteins:
a. Proteins are essential for the development of skin, teeth and bones
b. Proteins are made up of amino acids
c. Protein build and repairs body tissues
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

20. How many amino acids are needed to create a protein?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 10
d. 50
Answer: a. 20

21. Within a protein, multiple amino acids are linked together by…?
a. Acidic bond
b. Peptide bonds
c. Ionic bond
d. Hydrogen bond
Answer: b. Peptide bonds

22. Choose the correct statement about the complete proteins:
a. Proteins are essential for the development of skin, teeth and bones
b. Food that has a balanced amount of fat and protein
c. Foods that provide all the amino acids that the body needs
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

23. Which of the following techniques is used to determine the protein 3D structure?
a. Kryptonics X-ray vision
b. X-ray crystallography
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. UV-ray crystallography
Answer: b. X-ray crystallography

24. Which of the following disorders is caused by the deficiency of proteins?
a. Weight loss
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Marasmus
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

25. Which of the following cell organelles is involved in the process of protein synthesis within cells?
a. Ribosomes
b. Synchrotrons
c. Vesicles
d. Mitochondria
Answer: a. Ribosomes

26. Choose the Incorrect statement about the function of proteins:
a. Helps in transporting oxygen in the blood
b. Helps in digesting food
c. Fights against the invading pathogens
d. Energy provider for metabolism
Answer: d. Energy provider for metabolism

27. Choose the correct statement about enzymes:
a. Speed up metabolism
b. Enzymes are proteins
c. Enzymes are biological catalysts
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

28. Which of the following disease is caused due to the deficiency of proteins?
a. Anaemia
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Marasmus
d. All of these
Answer: c. Marasmus

29. Protein synthesis occurs in which of the following cell organelles?
a. Vacuoles
b. Nucleus
c. Cytoplasm
d. Mitochondria
Answer: c. Cytoplasm

1. Which gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen
Answer: b. Oxygen

2. Chlorophyll helps the plant in:
a. Absorbing water
b. Opening of stomata
c. Trapping sunlight
d. Closing of stomata
Answer: c. Trapping sunlight

a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Starch
d. Glucose
Answer: d. Glucose

4. Plants change the extra glucose made by them into:
a. Protein
b. Sugar
c. Starch
d. Carbohydrates
Answer: c. Starch

5. The step involved in photosynthesis takes place:
a. Simultaneously
b. Immediately one and another
c. At different times
d. None of these
Answer: c. At different times

6. What conditions are necessary for photosynthesis to take place?
a. Sunlight
b. Chlorophyll
c. Carbon dioxide and water
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

7. Which color is shown by starch when iodine is poured on it?
a. Red-orange
b. Dark blue
c. Yellow-green
d. Blue-black
Answer: d. Blue-black

8. A variegated leaf is:
a. Partly green and partly white
b. Partly green and partly yellow
c. Dark green
d. Fully white
Answer: a. Partly green and partly white

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Chlorophyll
d. Phosphorous
Answer: c. Chlorophyll

10. The opening and closing of stomatal pores in plants is controlled by:
a. Xylem
b. Phloem
c. Guard cells
d. None of these
Answer: c. Guard cells

11. Who presented the theory of essential mineral nutrients in plants?
a. Amon and Stout
b. Carl Linnaeus
c. Aristotle
d. Fuchs
Answer: a. Amon and Stout

12. The deficiency of phosphorous in plants causes:
a. Yellow coloration in leaves
b. Dark green coloration in leaves
c. Blue coloration in leaves
d. Pale yellow coloration in leaves
Answer: b. Dark green coloration in leaves

13. The enzymes in respiration are activated by:
a. Iron and sulfur
b. Calcium and potassium
c. Phosphorous and nitrogen
d. Manganese and magnesium
Answer: d. Manganese and magnesium

14. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?
a. Boron
b. Magnesium
c. zinc
d. Molybdenum
Answer: b. Magnesium

15. Nitrogen is absorbed in the form of:
a. Nitrogen oxide
b. Nitrates
c. Nitric acid
d. Free Nitrogen gas
Answer: b. Nitrates

16. There are how many essential nutrients does a plant require?
a. 7
b. 17
c. 20
d. 10
Answer: b. 17

17. Which of the following element has a great role in energy storage and transfer in plants?
a. Phosphorus
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Molybdenum
Answer: a. Phosphorus

18. In plants most nutrients are absorbed through their…?
a. Root hairs
b. Leave hairs
c. Stem hairs
d. Flower hairs
Answer: a. Root hairs

19. Which of the following mineral is what matters the most to leafy greens?
a. Molybdenum
b. Copper
c. Iron
d. Nitrogen
Answer: d. Nitrogen

20. Choose the false statement about the nutrition:
a. Manganese and molybdenum are micronutrients
b. Nitrogen and phosphorus are macronutrients
c. Nutrition provides energy
d. Plant hormones are nutrients
Answer: d. Plant hormones are nutrients

21. Which of the following minerals is required by the plants in large quantities?
a. Phosphorus, potassium, sulfur and calcium
b. Potassium, magnesium, Iron and Zinc
c. Boron, magnesium, Iron and Zinc
d. Phosphorus, Selenium and Magnesium
Answer: a. Phosphorus, potassium, sulfur and calcium

22. Which of the following element deficiency causes chlorosis (yellowing of plant leaves)?
a. Zinc
b. Manganese
c. Potassium
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

23. Which of the following is the main mode of nutrition in plants?
a. Saprophytic
b. Heterotrophic
c. Autotrophic
d. All of these
Answer: c. Autotrophic

24. Which of the following minerals is required for the synthesis of chlorophyll?
a. Ca and K
b. Iron and Magnesium
c. Calcium and Potassium
d. Nitrogen and Manganese
Answer: b. Iron and Magnesium

25. Which of the following is a major constituent of cell membranes and nucleic acids?
a. Phosphorous
b. Iron
c. Potassium
d. Nitrogen
Answer: a. Phosphorous

1. Who coined the term chromosomes for the first time in 1888?
a. Huxley
b. Fleming
c. Waldeyer
d. Johansson
Answer: c. Waldeyer

2. Who was the first person to observe the chromosomes in 1848?
a. Fleming
b. Hofmeister
c. Robert Hooke
d. Frederick
Answer: b. Hofmeister

3. Terminal end of the chromosome is called:

a. Chromomere
b. Centromere
c. Telomere
d. Metamere
Answer: c. Telomere

4. Which of the following provides the foundation for the assembly of the kinetochore?
a. Nucleolus
b. Centrosome
c. Centromere
d. Centrochrome
Answer: c. Centromere

5. Chromosome having centromere in middle is:
a. Telocentric
b. Metacentric
c. Sub Metacentric
d. Acrocentric
Answer: b. Metacentric

6. The process of pairing and ordering all the chromosomes of an organism is:
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Karyotype
d. Pedigree chart
Answer: c. Karyotype

7. Number of autosomes present in humans…?
a. 22 pairs
b. 23 pairs
c. 43 pairs
d. 11 pairs
Answer: a. 22

8. 23rd pair of chromosomes in man is known as:
a. Autosomes
b. Heterosomes
c. Linked genes
d. Chromatids
Answer: b. Heterosomes

a. Trisomy
b. Nullosomy
c. Monosomy
d. Tetrasomy
Answer: c. Monosomy

10. Person who discovered the Y chromosome was:
a. Nettie Stevens
b. Mendel
c. Sutton
d. Lederberg
Answer: a. Nettie Stevens

11. Satellite DNA is present on:
a. Nucleolus
b. Chloroplasts
c. Nucleus
d. Chromosomes
Answer: d. Chromosomes

12. Nucleosomes are:
a. Subunit of chromatin
b. Unit of chromosomes
c. Unit of proteins
d. Unit of RNA
Answer: a. Subunit of chromatin

13. Core of the nucleosome is made up of how many histones?
a. Five
b. Eight
c. Three
d. Two
Answer: b. Eight

14. What is the number of chromosomes in plasmodium?
a. 14
b. 10
c. 48
d. 46
Answer: a. 14

a. Chironomous
b. Fruit fly
c. Drosophila
d. Housefly
Answer: a. Chironomous

16. In males the gene that can give you red-green color blindness is located in:
a. X-chromosome
b. Both X and Y chromosomes
c. Y-chromosome
d. X or Y chromosome
Answer: a. X-chromosome

17. Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance?
a. Robert Hooke
b. Sutton and Boveri
c. Friedrich Miescher
d. Frederick and Griffith
Answer: b. Sutton and Boveri

18. Which of the following is a sex-linked disease?
a. Alzheimer’s
b. Leukemia
c. Malignancy
d. Red-green color blindness
Answer: d. Red-green color blindness

19. Choose the correct statement about the ends of the chromosome?
a. The ends of the chromosome are called Satellites
b. The ends of the chromosome are called Centromeres
c. A endsome is the end of a chromosome
d. A telomere is the end of a chromosome
Answer: d. A telomere is the end of a chromosome

20. There are how many sex chromosomes present in a human being?
a. 23 pair
b. 1 pair
c. 46 pair
d. 22 pair
Answer: b. 1 pair

21. A fully expressed allele is known as…?
a. Heterozygous allele
b. Recessive allele
c. Dominant allele
d. Prominent allele
Answer: c. Dominant allele

22. Each chromosome during the anaphase stage in a bone marrow cell in our body has:
a. No chromatids
b. Several chromatids
c. One chromatid
d. Two chromatids
Answer: c. One chromatid

23. Which of the following causes most genetic disorders?
a. The gender of an individual
b. The gross chromosomal abnormalities
c. Mutation
d. All of these
Answer: c. Mutation

24. At the time of cell division inside the nucleus the thread-like structures are known as…?
a. DNA
b. Gene
c. RNA
d. Chromosomes
Answer: d. Chromosomes

25. Chromatin is a complex of macromolecules composed of…?
a. DNA
b. DNA, RNA, and protein
c. RNA
d. Cell and proteins
Answer: b. DNA, RNA, and protein

26. Which of the following species comprises more than 200 chromosomes?
a. Buffalo
b. Amoeba
c. The red viscacha rat
d. Chicken
Answer: b. Amoeba

1. Fluid mosaic model belongs to:
a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. Dermis
d. Endodermis
Answer: a. Cell membrane

2. The flattened sacs in the cell are called:
a. Thylakoid
b. Cristae
c. Cisternae
d. Centriole
Answer: c. Cisternae

a. Robert Hook
b. Robert Brown
c. Robert Boyle
d. Schleiden
Answer: b. Robert Brown

4. The organelle that produces energy is:
a. Ribosomes
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Vacuole
Answer: b. Mitochondria

5. Cisternae belongs to:
a. Mitochondria
b. Vacuole
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi apparatus
Answer: d. Golgi apparatus

6. Rough endoplasmic reticulum serves a function in the synthesis of:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipid
c. Protein
d. Vitamin
Answer: c. Protein

7. Fluid of chloroplast is called:
a. Cytoplasm
b. Cytosol
c. Stroma
d. Nucleoplasm
Answer: c. Stroma

8. Pores through which cytoplasm of the adjacent cell can exchange:
a. Stomata
b. Plasmodesmata
c. lenticels
d. Cuticle
Answer: b. Plasmodesmata

a. Golgi bodies
b. Ribosomes
c. Lysosomes
d. Mitochondria
Answer: d. Mitochondria

10. In 1974 noble prize for physiology and medicine was won by:
a. Rene de Due
b. Golgi
c. Lamark
d. Aristotle
Answer: a. Rene de Due

11. Only certain molecules or ions can pass through it by osmosis:
a. Permeable membrane
b. Semipermeable membrane
c. Non permeable membrane
d. Cell wall
Answer: b. Semipermeable membrane

12. Ribosomal RNA is produced in:
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleolus
c. Lysosomes
d. Golgi apparatus
Answer: b. Nucleolus

13. The sites of aerobic respiration in cells are:
a. Golgi bodies
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Plastids
Answer: c. Mitochondria

a. Leucoplasts
b. Chloroplasts
c. Chromoplasts
d. Lipoplasts
Answer: a. Leucoplasts

15. The cell wall of prokaryotes is composed of:
a. Lignin
b. Cellulose
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Chitin
Answer: c. Peptidoglycan

16. Which of the following organelle functions to package and deliver proteins?
a. lysosome
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi apparatus
d. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: c. Golgi apparatus

17. Which of the following organelle produces energy, known as ATP, for the cell?
a. lysosome
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi apparatus
d. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b. Mitochondria

18. Which of the following cellular organelles is responsible for protein synthesis?
a. Lysosome
b. Ribosomes
c. Centrioles
d. Vacuoles
Answer: b. Ribosomes

19. Which of the following cell organelles is present in a plant cell and absent in the animal cells?
a. Mitochondria
b. Vacuoles
c. Cytoplasm
d. Cell wall
Answer: c. Cell wall

20. Which of the following cell organelles does NOT contain DNA?
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleus
c. Chloroplast
d. Lysosomes and vacuoles
Answer: d. Lysosomes and vacuoles

21. Choose the correct statement about the cell wall?
a. The cell wall is mainly composed of lipid
b. The cell wall is mainly composed of starch
c. The cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose
d. The cell wall is mainly composed of protein
Answer: c. The cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose

22. Choose the correct statement about the cell theory?
a. The cell theory is not applicable to viruses
b. The cell theory is not applicable to algae
c. The cell theory is not applicable to fungi
d. The cell theory is not applicable to microbes
Answer: a. The cell theory is not applicable to viruses

23. The jelly-like substance inside the plasma membrane in which all cell organelles are floating is known as…?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Cell sap
c. Karyoplasm
d. Mitochondria
Answer: a. Cytoplasm

24. The “powerhouses” of the cell, oval-shaped organelles found in most eukaryotic cells are…?
a. lysosome
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Chloroplast
Answer: b. Mitochondria

25. Which of the following cell organelles regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell?
a. Lysosome
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi bodies
d. Cell membrane
Answer: d. Cell membrane

26. The branch of biology that studies cells, their physiological properties, their structure is known as…?
a. Biotechnology
b. Microbiology
c. Cell Botany
d. Cell Biology
Answer: d. Cell Biology

27. Which of the following cell organelles is also called ”Suicidal bags” because of their phagocytic activity?
a. Lysosome
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi bodies
d. Cell membrane
Answer: a. Lysosome

28. Which of the following cell organelles is involved in the storage of food, and other nutrients, required for a cell to survive?
a. Vacuoles
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi bodies
d. Cell membrane
Answer: a. Vacuoles

29. The cell organelle which is involved in the breakdown of organic matter is…?
a. Vacuoles
b. Lysosome
c. Golgi bodies
d. Cell membrane
Answer: b. Lysosome

30. Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of phospholipids?
a. the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
b. Mitochondria
c. Cytoplasm
d. Lysosome
Answer: a. the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

31. Choose the correct statement about the chromosomes?
a. It is present within the nucleus
b. It is composed of DNA
c. It carries genes and helps in inheritance
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

32. Which of the following are called single membrane-bound organelles?
a. Lysosome
b. Vacuole
c. Golgi Apparatus
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these

33. Which of the following is NOT a double membrane-bound organelle?
a. Chloroplast
b. Mitochondria
c. Endoplasmic Reticulum
d. All of these
Answer: c. Endoplasmic Reticulum

34. Choose the correct statement about the Nucleus?
a. It contains DNA and other genetic materials
b. It is absent in prokaryotes
c. It is called the brain of the cell
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these