Almost all solved MCQs for you..

January 2016
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COMPUTERIZED OFFICE MANAGEMENT
BTS
MCQ QUESTIONS
1.Ctrl + U
A. Undelete the previously deleted text
B. Undo the last changes
C. Underline the document name
D. Underline the selected text
2. Ctrl + V
A. Paste Texts in the beginning of Document
B. Paste Images in the beginning of Document
C. Paste Tables at the middle of Document
D. None of the above
3. Ctrl + W
A. Save and Print the Document
B. Save and Close Word Application
C. Save and Close document
D. Without Save, Close Document
4. Ctrl + X
A. Close Document
B. Close Word Application
C. Cut the Selected Contents
D. Copy the Selected Contents
5. Ctrl + Y
A. Undo the last Action
B. Repeat the last Action
C. Delete the last page
D. Delete the first page
6. Ctrl + Z
A. Undo the last Action
B. Redo the last Action
C. Add the new page
D. Paste the contents from clipboard
7. Page Up Key
A. Moves the cursor one line up
B. Moves the cursor one screen up
C. Moves the cursor one page up
D. Moves the cursor one paragraph up
8.Page Down Key
A. Moves the cursor one line down
B. Moves the cursor one page down
C. Moves the cursor one screen down
D. Moves the cursor one paragraph down
9. Home Key
A. Moves the cursor beginning of the document
B. Moves the cursor beginning of the paragraph
C. Moves the cursor beginning of the screen
D. Moves the cursor beginning of the line
10. End Key
A. Moves the cursor end of the line
B. Moves the cursor end of the document
C. Moves the cursor end of the paragraph
D. Moves the cursor end of the screen
11.What is the shortcut key to split a table?
A. Ctrl + Alt + Enter
B. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
C. Alt + Shift + Enter
D. Alt + Space + Enter
12. Page break is not a Section break
A. True
B. False
13. Which of the following is not the Section Break Option?
A. Next Page
B. Previous Page
C. Odd Page
D. Even Page
14. What is a Document Outline View?
A. A preview in a full screen
B. A preview with margins
C. A View with a margins and gutter
D. A view with a structure of heading at various levels
15. What is the use of Document Map?
A. to quickly format the document
B. to quickly print required page
C. to quickly navigate the document
D. to quickly correct spelling mistakes
16. What is the shortcut key to display field codes?
A. Alt + F9
B. Ctrl + F9
C. Shift + F9
D. Space + F9
17. What is the shortcut key to show font dialog box?
A. Ctrl + D
B. Ctrl + Shift + F
C. Ctrl + Shift + P
D. All of the above
18. How to remove all character formats?
A. Shift + Spacebar
B. Shift + Enter
C. Ctrl + Spacebar
D. Ctrl + Enter
19. Which of the following is true regarding page Orientation of a Document?
A. Page Orientation can be change at any time
B. Page Orientation of document determines by printer
C. Page Orientation must be set before start typing
D. Page Orientation of a document cannot be changed.
20. Which of the following is Page Orientation?
A. Landscape
B. Portrait
C. Gutter
D. Only A & B
21. What is the use of bookmarks in Microsoft Word?
A. To easily correct the spelling errors
B. To quickly jump to a specific location in the document
C. To quickly jump to the ending of the document
D. To create a link within the document
22. What is the shortcut-key for manual line break?
A. CTRL + Enter
B. Alt + Enter
C. Shift + Enter
D. Space + Enter
23. Which feature helps you to inserts the contents of the Clipboard as text without any
formatting
A. Paste Special
B. Format Painter
C. Page Setup
D. Styles
24. Which feature is used to replace straight quotes with smart quotes as you type?
A. Auto Correct as you type
B. Auto Change as you type
C. Auto Format as you type
D. Smart Tags as you type
25. Which of the following is correct regarding Underline in MS-Word?
A. Color of Underline can be change
B. Style of Underline can be change
C. Underline can be set using by shortcut key
D. All of the above
26. How will MS Word will respond in repeated word.
A. A Red wavy line under the repeated word
B. A Green wavy line under the repeated word
C. A Blue wavy line under the repeated word
D. None of the above
27. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment
A. Decimal Alignment
B. Center Alignment
C. Bar Alignment
D. Justify Alignment
28. How to use Format Painter multiple times
A. By Click on Lock Format Painter Icon
B. By Double Click on the Format Painter Icon
C. By Selecting Edit -> Format Painter -> Multiple Use
D. Format Painter cannot be use multiple times
29. Gutter position can be set in following positions
A. Left & Right
B. Left & Top
C. Left & Bottom
D. Left Only
30. What is the use of “All Caps” feature in MS-Word?
A. It changes all selected text into Capital Letter
B. It adds captions for selected Image
C. It shows all the image captions
D. None of the above
31. A function inside another function is called _______
A. Nested function
B. Round function
C. Sum function
D. Text function
32. Which of the following is not an underline option in the format cells dialog box?
A. Double
B. Single Accounting
C. Double Accounting
D. Single Engineering
33. Formulas in Excel start with
A. %
B. =
C. +
D. -
34. The default header for a worksheet is
A. Username
B. Date and Time
C. Sheet tab Name
D. None
35. Which of the following is not an option of the spelling dialog box?
A. Ignore
B. Ignore all
C. Edit
D. Change
36. Which of the following methods will not enter data in a cell?
A. Pressing the Esc key
B. Pressing an arrow key
C. Pressing the tab key
D. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar
37. The cell reference for cell range of G2 to M12 is _______
A. G2.M12
B. G2;M12
C. G2:M12
D. G2-M12
38. What is the keyboard shortcut for creating a chart from the selected cell range?
A. F2
B. F4
C. F8
D. F11
39. The Software which contains rows and columns is called ______
A. Database
B. Drawing
C. Spreadsheet
D. Word processing
40. You can group noncontiguous worksheets with
A. The alt+enter key
B. The ctrl key and mouse
C. The shift key and the mouse
D. The group button on the standard toolbar
41. Comments put in cells are called …..
A. Smart Tip
B. Cell Tip
C. Web Tip
D. Soft Tip
42. Comments can be added to cells using …..
A. Edit -> Comments
B. Insert -> Comment
C. File -> Comments
D. View –> Comments
43. Which menu option can be used to split windows into two?
A. Format -> Window
B. View -> Window-> Split
C. Window -> Split
D. View –> Split
44. Getting data from a cell located in a different sheet is called….
A. Accessing
B. Referencing
C. Updating
D. Functioning
45. Which of the following is not a valid data type in Excel?
A. Number
B. Character
C. Label
D. Date/Time
46. Which elements of a worksheet can be protected from accidental modification?
A. Contents
B. Objects
C. Scenarios
D. All of the above
47. A numeric value can be treated as label value if …… precedes it.
A. Apostrophe (‘)
B. Exclamation (!)
C. Hash (#)
D. Tilde (~)
48. Concatenation of text can be done using
A. Apostrophe (‘)
B. Exclamation (!)
C. Hash (#)
D. Ampersand (&)
49. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?
A. Title Bar
B. Menu Bar
C. Formula Bar
D. Standard Tool Bar
50. Multiple calculations can be made in a single formula using…..
A. Standard Formulas
B. Array Formula
C. Complex Formulas
D. Smart Formula
51. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
52. Which would you choose to display the statistics about a document?
A. tools, word count
B. insert, statistics
C. tools, spelling and grammar
D. tools, statistics
53. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document?
A. Bullets & numbering
B. Tables
C. Columns
D. Tab stops
54. Which would you choose to list Synonyms & Antonyms of a selected word?
A. Tools, Spelling & Grammar
B. Tools, Language
C. Tools, Options
D. Insert, Cross-reference
55. Which language does MS-Word use to create Macros?
A. Visual C++
B. Visual Basic
C. FoxPro
D. Access
56. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’?
A. the defaults
B. a template
C. a style
D. a boilerplate
57. In MS Word, Ctrl+S is for …..
A. Scenarios
B. Size
C. Save
D. Spelling Check
58. Which key is used to increase left indent?
A. Ctrl+I
B. Ctrl+M
C. Alt+I
D. F10
59. Which key is used to select all the text in the document?
A. Ctrl+T
B. Ctrl+A
C. Ctrl+F
D. Ctrl+N
60. To undo the last work, press …..
A. Ctrl+U
B. Ctrl+Y
C. Ctrl+Z
D. Ctrl+W
61. Primary memory stores
A. Data alone
B. Programs alone
C. Results alone
D. All of these
62. Memory unit is one part of
A. Input device
B. Control unit
C. Output device
D. Central Processing Unit
63. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
A. Know the memory capacity
B. Identify the base of a number system
C. Direct the output to a printer
D. Specify the problem completely and clearly
64. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
A. 8″
B. 5 1/4″
C. 3 1/2″
D. 5 1/2″
65. The basic operations performed by a computer are
A. Arithmetic operation
B. Logical operation
C. Storage and relative
D. All the above
66. The earliest calculating devices are
A. Abacus
B. Clock
C. Difference Engine
D. None of these
67. Who built the first Mechanical Calculator
A. Joseph Marie Jacquard
B. John Mauchly
C. Blaise Pascal
D. Howard Aiken
68. Which Chart can be created in Excel?
A. Area
B. Line
C. Pie
D. All of the above
69. How do you display current date and time in MS Excel?
A. date ()
B. Today ()
C. now ()
D. time ()
70. How do you display current date only in MS Excel?
A. date ()
B. Today ()
C. now ()
D. time ()
71. How do you wrap the text in a cell?
A. Format, cells, font
B. Format, cells, protection
C. format, cells, number
D. Format, cells, alignment
72. What does COUNTA () function do?
A. counts cells having alphabets
B. counts empty cells
C. counts cells having number
D. counts non-empty cells
73. What is the short cut key to highlight the entire column?
A. Ctrl+C
B. Ctrl+Enter
C. Ctrl+Page Up
D. Ctrl+Space Bar
74. In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed columns or rows?
A. $
B. *
C. %
D. &
75. Excel displays the current cell address in the ……….
A. Formula bar
B. Status Bar
C. Name Box
D. Title Bar
76. What is the correct way to refer the cell A10 on sheet3 from sheet1?
A. sheet3!A10
B. sheet1!A10
C. Sheet3.A10
D. A10
77. When sharing data in Office, the ________ document is the document in which the data was
first entered.
A. source
B. destination
C. original
D. primary
78. Which command is used to establish a link between a source document and a destination
document?
A. Tools, Link, Documents
B. Tools, Link
C. Edit, Link
D. Edit, Paste Special
79. Which option enables automatic updates in destination documents?
A. embedding
B. objects
C. links
D. relationships
80. Which is an Office feature that makes it easy to edit embedded objects?
A. pasting
B. visual editing
C. tools, update, links
D. edit, links
81. Which is true when you insert an excel worksheet into a word document?
A. word is the destination document
B. excel is the destination document
C. the worksheet is the destination document
D. the document is the source document
82. What would you do when you want to update the data in an embedded worksheet range?
A. double click the worksheet range object
B. right click worksheet range object & choose format object
C. edit the data in the destination document
D. edit the data in the source document.
83. Which can be used for quick access to commonly used commands and tools?
A. Status bar
B. Tool bar
C. Menu bar
D. Title bar
84. With which view can you see how text and graphics will appear on the printed page?
A. Normal
B. Print Layout
C. Outline
D. Web Layout
85. Which simplifies the process of formatting text if the same formatting is required in more
than one location?
A. Auto Text
B. Format Painter
C. Font dialog box
D. None of the above
86. Which of the following is best for quick copy operation?
A. Copy and Paste
B. Windows Clipboard
C. Drag and Drop
D. Auto Text
87. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MSWord?
A. New
B. Quit
C. Close
D. Exit
88. Which bar is usually located below that Title Bar that provides categorized options?
A. Menu bar
B. Status Bar
C. Tool bar
D. Scroll bar
89. Which of these toolbars allows changing of Fonts and their sizes?
A. Standard
B. Formatting
C. Print Preview
D. None of these
90. Which key should be pressed to start a new paragraph in MS-Word?
A. Down Cursor Key
B. Enter Key
C. Shift + Enter
D. Ctrl + Enter
91. Which menu in MSWord can be used to change character size and typeface?
A. View
B. Tools
C. Format
D. Data
92. By default, on which page the header or the footer is printed?
A. on first page
B. on alternate page
C. on every page
D. none of the above
93. In MS-Word, for what does ruler help?
A. to set tabs
B. to set indents
C. to change page margins
D. All of the above
94. Using Find command in Word, we can search?
A. characters
B. formats
C. symbols
D. All of the above
95. MS-Word automatically moves the text to the next line when it reaches the right edge of the
screen and is called?
A. Carriage Return
B. Enter
C. Word Wrap
D. None of the above
96. Selecting text means, selecting?
A. a word
B. an entire sentence
C. whole document
D. any of the above
97. What is the shortcut key to “Center Align” the selected text?
A. Ctrl + C
B. Ctrl + E
C. Ctrl + F
D. None of above
98. What is the shortcut key to “Undo” the last action in a document?
A. Ctrl + X
B. Ctrl + Y
C. Ctrl + Z
D. None of above
99. What is the shortcut key to “Insert Hyperlink” in a document?
A. Ctrl + H
B. Ctrl + L
C. Ctrl + K
D. None of above
100. What is the shortcut key for “Find and Replace” dialog box?
A. Ctrl + F
B. Ctrl + R
C. Ctrl + H
D. Ctrl + Shift + F
101. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check in document?
A. F7
B. Shift + F7
C. Ctrl + F7
D. Alt + F7
102. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula in a table?
A. F9
B. Alt + F9
C. Ctrl + F9
D. Shift + F9
103. What is the shortcut key to Close Active Document in Microsoft Word?
A. Ctrl + F4
B. Shift + F4
C. Ctrl + Shift + F4
D. None of above
104. What is the shortcut key for “Font” dialog box?
A. Ctrl + F
B. Ctrl + D
C. Ctrl + G
D. None of the above
105. What is the shortcut key for “Superscript” the selected text?
A. Ctrl + =
B. Ctrl + -
C. Ctrl + Shift + =
D. Ctrl + Shift + -
106. What is the shortcut key for “Subscript” the selected text?
A. Ctrl + =
B. Ctrl + -
C. Ctrl + Shift + =
D. Ctrl + Shift + -
107. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
108. Which would you choose to display the statistics about a document?
A. tools, word count
B. insert, statistics
C. tools, spelling and grammar
D. tools, statistics
109. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document?
A. Bullets & numbering
B. Tables
C. Columns
D. Tab stops
110. Which would you choose to list Synonyms & Antonyms of a selected word?
A. Tools, Spelling & Grammar
B. Tools, Language
C. Tools, Options
D. Insert, Cross-reference
111. Which language does MS-Word use to create Macros?
A. Visual C++
B. Visual Basic
C. FoxPro
D. Access
112. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’?
A. the defaults
B. a template
C. a style
D. a boilerplate
113. In MS Word, Ctrl+S is for …..
A. Scenarios
B. Size
C. Save
D. Spelling Check
114. Which key is used to increase left indent?
A. Ctrl+I
B. Ctrl+M
C. Alt+I
D. F10
115. Which key is used to select all the text in the document?
A. Ctrl+T
B. Ctrl+A
C. Ctrl+F
D. Ctrl+N
116. To undo the last work, press …..
A. Ctrl+U
B. Ctrl+Y
C. Ctrl+Z
D. Ctrl+W
117. In Computer System Scanner is ______ Device?
A. Input
B. Output
C. Both
D. None
118. Speed of Laser Printer is measured in
A. LPM
B. PPM
C. DPI
D. DPS
119. Which of the following is not Computer Hardware?
A. Mouse
B. Monitor
C. Antivirus
D. Printer
120. What is the main purpose of the secondary storage device?
A. To increase the speed of Computer
B. To Install Operating System
C. To Networking
D. To Store Data
121. A Dumb terminal has
A. Processor and Keyboard
B. Processor and Hard Disk
C. Keyboard and Hard Disk
D. Keyboard and Screen
122. Who invented Integrated Circuit (IC)?
A. Herman Hollerith
B. Jack Kilby
C. Semen Korsakov
D. Bill Gates
123. The output quality of a printer is measured by
A. Dot per sq. inch
B. Dot per inch
C. Dots printed per unit time
D. All of the above
124. Main storage is also called
A. Accumulator
B. Control Unit
C. Register Unit
D. Memory
125. After copying the content how many times can you paste?
A. 1
B. 16
C. 32
D. Many
126. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
a. .jpg
b. .giv
c. .wav
d. All of the above
127. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound effects files that can be added to the
presentation are
a. .wav files and .mid files
b. .wav files and .gif files
c. .wav files and .jpg files
d. .jpg files and .gif files
128. Material consisting of text and numbers is best presented as
a. A table slide
b. A bullet slide
c. A title slide
d. All of the above
129. What is a motion path?
a. A type of animation entrance effect
b. A method of advancing slides
c. A method of moving items on a slide
d. All of the above
130. What is a slide-title master pair?
a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
d. All of above
131. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation to
have the same “look”?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template
132. in the context of animations, what is a trigger?
a. An action button that advances to the next slide
b. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked
c. The name of a motion path
d. All of above
133. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send using email to another
teacher you can add the show to your email message as a (an)
a. Inclusion
b. Attachment
c. Reply
d. Forward
134. In order to edit a chart, you can
a. Triple click the chart object
b. Click and drag the chart object
c. Double click the chart object
d. Click the chart object
135. to exit the PowerPoint
a. click the application minimize button
b. click the document close button
c. double click the applications control menu icon
d. double click the document control menu icon
136. to preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, you should
a. click the play button
b. click the show effect button
c. double click the motion path
d. all of above
137. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N
138. You can embed a MS-Organization Chart in a slide by
a. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
b. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
c. Clicking the insert new slide button the standard toolbar, then double click the organization
chart button on the formatting toolbar
d. Clicking the MS-Organization Chart button on the standard toolbar
139. To select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, what do you press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h
d. All of above
140. special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called
a. effects
b. custom animations
c. transitions
d. present animations
141. How was the generation of computer classified?
A. by the device used in memory & processor
B. by the speed of computer
C. by the model of the computer
D. by the accuracy of computer
142. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting
b. Dragging
c. Selecting
d. Moving
143. Which of the following toolbars provide different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
144. The Second Generation Computer was based on ………….
A. Vacuum Tube
B. Silicon Chips
C. Transistor
D. Bio Chips
145. The Third Generation Computer was made with ………….
A. Vacuum Tube
B. Discrete Components
C. IC
D. Bio Chips
146. Which option on the custom animation task pane allows you to apply a preset or
custom motion path?
a. Add effect
b. Emphasis
c. Animate now
d. All of the above
147. What is the term used when a clip art image changes the direction of faces?
a. Group
b. Flip
c. Rotate
d. All of the above
148. the slide that is used to introduce a topic and set the tone for the presentation is called
the
a. table slide
b. graph slide
c. bullet slide
d. title slide
149. Which of the following features should you use when typing in the notes text box?
a. Slide show
b. Insert
c. Slide maser
d. Zoom
150. Which option allows you to select line, curve, freeform or scribble tools?
a. Create effect
b. Insert motion path
c. Draw custom path
d. All of the above
151. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an existing
presentation?
a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, New slide
c. File Open
d. File, New
152. The size of the organization chart object
a. Is determined by the presentation design and can not be changed
b. Is determined by the presentation design but can be changed in PowerPoint
c. Is dependent on the amount of text within the organization chart
d. b and c
153. which of the following is the default page setup orientation of slide in PowerPoint
a. rVertical
b. Landscape
c. Portrait
d. None of above
154. Want a PowerPoint photo album slide show to play continuously?
a. Use random slide transitions
b. Launch an online broadcast
c. Loop continuously
d. All of the above
155. When did John Napier develop logarithm?
A. 1416
B. 1614
C. 1641
D. 1804
156. Which of the following tool enables you to add text to a slide without using the
standard placeholders?
a. Text tool box
b. Line tool
c. Drawing tool
d. Auto shapes tool
157. Punched cards were first introduced by
A. Powers
B. Pascal
C. Jacquard
D. Herman Hollerith
158. Want your logo in the same position on every slide, automatically? Insert it on the
a. Handout master
b. Notes master
c. Slide master
d. All of the above
159. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for
all slides in a presentation?
a. Slide sorter view
b. Notes pages view
c. Slide view
d. Outline view
160. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
a. Placeholders
b. Object holders
c. Auto layouts
d. Text holders
161. Which of the following provides a means of printing out feature notes with a
miniature slide on a printed page?
a. Slide with animation
b. Outline view
c. Notes page
d. Audience handout
162. Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + Home
d. Ctrl + End
163. In normal view, how can you quickly change to handout master view?
a. Click the outline tab and select handout master view
b. Press the shift key and click the handout master view button
c. On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click handouts.
d. All of above
164. What was the first general-purpose electronic computer?
a. IBM 405
b. Zuse Z3
c. ENIAC
d. CSIRAC
165. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation?
a. Slide show menu
b. Rehearse timings button
c. Slide transition button
d. All of the above
166. To select all of the boxes of an organization chart
a. Clicking and edit and select all
b. Right click the chart background and then click select all
c. Press and hgold the SHIFT key and click each box
d. All of above
167. You can show the shortcut menu during the slide show by
a. Clicking the shortcut button on the formatting toolbar
b. Right clicking the current slide
c. Clicking an icon on the current slide
d. a and b
168. Auto clipart is a feature that
a. Automatically places clipart in your presentation
b. Scans your presentation for incorrect spelling in your words on each slide
c. Scans your presentation for incorrect spelling in Word Arts objects
d. All of above
169. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used ___ as a
memory unit
A. RAM
B. Floppies
C. Cards
D. Counter Wheels
170. Whidh of the following allow you to select more than one slide in a presentation?
a. Alt + Click each slide
b. Shift + drag each slide
c. Shift + Click each slide
d. Ctrl + Click each slide
171. The view that displays the slides on a presentation as miniature representations of the
slides is called
a. slide show
b. slide sorter view
c. notes page view
d. outline view
172. The PowerPoint view that displays only text (title and bullets) is
a. Slide show
b. Slide sorter view
c. Notes page view
d. Outline view
173. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as one slide replaces another in a show is
called a (an)
a. animation
b. slide transition
c. custom animation
d. preset animation
174. Which of the following presentation elements can you modify using the slide master?
a. Slide comments
b. Slide transitions
c. Speaker note font and color
d. All of above
175. Which of the following provides a printed copy of your presentation?
a. Outline
b. Speaker notes
c. Audience handouts
d. All of the above
176. Slide show options available to the presenter include all of the following except
a. Transitions command
b. Speaker notes command
c. Meeting reminder command
d. Navigation commands
177. Presentation designs regulate the formatting and layout for the slide and are
commonly called
a. Design plates
b. Templates
c. Placeholders
d. Blueprints
178. Which of the following bypasses the print dialog box when printing individual slides
or an entire presentation?
a. File, print, preview
b. The print button
c. File, print
d. Ctrl + p
179. To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use
a. The title master
b. The slide master
c. The handout master
d. All of above
180. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?
a. Esc key
b. The spacebar
c. The Enter key
d. The mouse button
181. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Firmware
D. ROM ware
182. Comments on a presentation can record who wrote them and when they were added.
What’s the automatic way in PowerPoint 2002?
a. Use online collaboration
b. Use comments
c. Use the notes page
d. All of the above
183. When using PowerPoint, to play a PowerPoint show for previewing the show, select
a. View, slide sorter
b. View, slide
c. View, slide show
d. View outline
184. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all the slides on one screen use
a. view, slide sorter
b. view, slide
c. view, master
d. view, slide show
185. What’s the best place to find animated images for your PowerPoint 2002
presentation?
a. Microsoft online
b. Word clipart
c. PowerPoint tools and ins
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b
186. What’s the easy way to apply varied animations to test on slides
a. apply effects in the custom animation text pane
b. apply an animation scheme
c. customize bullets with animated clipart
d. all of above
187. Which of the following is a read only memory storage device?
A. Floppy Disk
B. CDROM
C. Hard Disk
D. None of these
188. Which of the following is a programming language?
A. Lotus
B. Pascal
C. MS-Excel
D. Netscape
189. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except:
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing Ctrl + N
190. Which of the following is not an output device?
A. Scanner
B. Printer
C. Flat Screen
D. Touch Screen
191. Which of the following options in the printer dialog box would you select to prit slides
5 and 12 in a presentation?
a. Slides
b. Custom shows
c. Current slide
d. All
192. Which of the following toolbars provides different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
193. You can tell when an object is active because
a. The object is highlighted
b. Eight small sizing handles appear surrounding the text
c. A box frame appears surrounding the text
d. b and c
194. Which of the following is not an option when printing handouts?
a. Six slides per page
b. Five slides per page
c. Three slides per page
d. Two slides per page
195. _______ is used for scanning the pictures and putting them in digitized form in the
computer.
A. CD-ROM
B. Plotter
C. Bar-coder
D. Scanner
196. Any and every command can be found on the
a. Drawing toolbar
b. Formatting toolbar
c. Standard toolbar
d. Menu bar
197. The slide that is used to introduce a topic and set the tone for the presentation is called
the
a. Table slide
b. Graph slide
c. Bullet slide
d. Title slide
198. Which is a volatile memory?
A. ROM
B. BIOS
C. PROM
D. RAM
199. Which of the following features should you use when typing in he notes text box?
a. Slide shows
b. Insert
c. Slide master
d. Zoom
200. Which of the following should e used when you want to add a slide to an existing
presentation?
a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, new slide
c. File, open
d. File, new
6:11 PM
5
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Questions 1–10
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements is followed by
five suggested answers. Select the best answer in each case.
Q1 All the following products used in the treatment of glaucoma are applied
topically EXCEPT:
A ❏ Xalatan
B ❏ Diamox
C ❏ Trusopt
D ❏ Timoptol
E ❏ Betoptic
Q2 Which is an alternative preparation of Lipitor?
A ❏ Cozaar
B ❏ Lescol
C ❏ Zestril
D ❏ Cardura
E ❏ Trandate
Q3 Tambocor:
A ❏ may be of value in serious symptomatic ventricular arrhythmias
B ❏ is a beta-adrenoceptor blocker
C ❏ is available only for parenteral administration
D ❏ cannot be administered concurrently with antibacterial agents
E ❏ is a proprietary preparation for amiodarone
3
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 3
Q4 Terazosin:
A ❏ constricts smooth muscle
B ❏ is a selective beta-blocker
C ❏ increases urinary flow rate
D ❏ may cause an increase in blood pressure
E ❏ is indicated in urinary frequency
Q5 Legionnaires’ disease:
A ❏ is caused by a Gram-positive coccus
B ❏ is a chronic infectious disease
C ❏ has an incubation period of 2 days to 3 years
D ❏ is characterised by the development of pneumonia
E ❏ may be prevented by vaccination
Q6 Trigger factors for migraine include all EXCEPT:
A ❏ use of caffeine
B ❏ exposure to sunlight
C ❏ missed meals
D ❏ lack of sleep
E ❏ air travel
Q7 All the following products contain a local anaesthetic EXCEPT:
A ❏ Dequacaine
B ❏ Merocaine
C ❏ BurnEze
D ❏ Anthisan
E ❏ Proctosedyl
4 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 4
Q8 Good pharmacy practice guidelines:
A ❏ have been established by the International Pharmaceutical
Federation (FIP)
B ❏ comply with ISO 9000
C ❏ consist of an audit process
D ❏ relate to pharmaceutical marketing
E ❏ entail field observation studies
Q9 Anti-D immunoglobulin:
A ❏ is available as oral tablets
B ❏ is a vaccination for tetanus
C ❏ should be administered preferably within 72 h of a
sensitising episode
D ❏ is intended to protect the mother from haemolytic disease
E ❏ cannot be used for prophylaxis
Q10 Which of the following products is NOT indicated for the management
of peptic ulceration?
A ❏ Zantac
B ❏ Gaviscon
C ❏ Nexium
D ❏ Pariet
E ❏ Buscopan
Questions 11–34
Directions: Each group of questions below consists of five lettered
headings followed by a list of numbered questions. For each
numbered question select the one heading that is most closely
Questions 11–34 5
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 5
related to it. Each heading may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
Questions 11–13 concern the following drugs:
A ❏ valaciclovir
B ❏ griseofulvin
C ❏ itraconazole
D ❏ famciclovir
E ❏ terbinafine
Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to the brand name:
Q11 Famvir
Q12 Sporanox
Q13 Lamisil
Questions 14–17 concern the following drugs:
A ❏ nalidixic acid
B ❏ norfloxacin
C ❏ levofloxacin
D ❏ ofloxacin
E ❏ amphotericin
Select, from A to E, which one of the above:
Q14 can be used for intestinal candidiasis
Q15 has greater activity than ciprofloxacin against pneumococci
Q16 is marketed as Tavanic
6 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 6
Q17 is only indicated in urinary tract infection
Questions 18–20 concern the following drugs:
A ❏ atenolol
B ❏ folic acid
C ❏ imipramine
D ❏ carbamazepine
E ❏ co-trimoxazole
Select, from A to E, during pregnancy which one of the above:
Q18 may cause intrauterine growth restriction
Q19 may increase the risk of neural tube defects
Q20 may increase the risk of tachycardia in neonate
Questions 21–23 concern the following maximum oral daily doses:
A ❏ 200 mg daily
B ❏ 150 mg daily
C ❏ 100 mg daily
D ❏ 50 mg daily
E ❏ 300 mg daily
Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to:
Q21 diclofenac
Q22 sildenafil
Q23 sumatriptan
Questions 11–34 7
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 7
Questions 24–26 concern the following cautionary labels:
A ❏ To be sucked or chewed.
B ❏ With or after food.
C ❏ Follow the printed instructions you have been given with this
medicine.
D ❏ Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.
E ❏ Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor’s
advice.
Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to the drugs:
Q24 chlorpromazine
Q25 dapsone
Q26 warfarin
Questions 27–30 concern the following products:
A ❏ AeroChamber
B ❏ Nuelin
C ❏ Atrovent
D ❏ Beconase
E ❏ Alupent
Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to the following presentations:
Q27 syrup
Q28 aerosol for inhalation
Q29 spacer device
Q30 nasal spray
8 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 8
Questions 31–34 concern the following tablet descriptions:
A ❏ yellow 40 mg
B ❏ brown 1 mg
C ❏ yellow 250 mg
D ❏ red-brown 100 mg
E ❏ yellow 2.5 mg
Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to the following preparations:
Q31 Klaricid
Q32 Diovan
Q33 warfarin
Q34 Zomig
Questions 35–60
Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of the
responses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is
(are) correct. Then choose:
A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correct
C ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correct
D ❏ if 1 only is correct
E ❏ if 3 only is correct
Directions summarised
A B C D E
1, 2, 3 1, 2 only 2, 3 only 1 only 3 only
Questions 35–60 9
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 9
Q35 When administering cisplatin powder for injection:
1 ❏ it should be reconstituted with water for injection
2 ❏ it should be given over 6–8 h
3 ❏ the infusion fluid used is Ringer’s solution
Q36 Ceftazidime:
1 ❏ is a ‘third-generation’ cephalosporin antibacterial
2 ❏ is more active than cefuroxime against Gram-positive bacteria
3 ❏ is available as tablets and injections
Q37 Potentially hazardous interactions could occur between:
1 ❏ ergotamine and zolmitriptan
2 ❏ warfarin and gliclazide
3 ❏ combined oral contraceptives and clindamycin
Q38 Examples of enzyme inducers include:
1 ❏ griseofulvin
2 ❏ rifampicin
3 ❏ warfarin
Q39 Which of the following drugs may be used in patients with liver disease
but require a dose reduction?
1 ❏ Natrilix
2 ❏ Nizoral
3 ❏ Zyloric
Q40 Capsulitis:
1 ❏ is a disorder affecting the shoulder
2 ❏ may be caused by unaccustomed movement
3 ❏ is an inflammatory process
10 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 10
Q41 Presentations of a facial lesion that warrant referral include:
1 ❏ swollen lymph glands in the neck
2 ❏ butterfly distribution of a rash over the nose and cheeks
3 ❏ a scaly rash with mild erythema affecting the forehead and
eyebrows
Q42 Antacid preparations containing sodium bicarbonate include:
1 ❏ Gaviscon liquid
2 ❏ Bisodol Heartburn Relief tablets
3 ❏ Maalox Plus tablets
Q43 The agents associated with pain and inflammation of a bee sting include:
1 ❏ histamine
2 ❏ apamin
3 ❏ hyaluronidase
Q44 Antispasmodics that could be recommended for irritable bowel
syndrome include:
1 ❏ Colofac
2 ❏ Spasmonal
3 ❏ Fybogel
Q45 Paradichlorobenzene:
1 ❏ has antifungal properties
2 ❏ is used as a disinfectant
3 ❏ is present in Cerumol drops
Questions 35–60 11
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 11
Q46 Aspirin:
1 ❏ potentiates the anticoagulant effect of warfarin
2 ❏ inhibits platelet aggregation
3 ❏ promotes vitamin K synthesis
Q47 Male pattern baldness:
1 ❏ is androgenetic alopecia
2 ❏ is caused by the release of prostaglandins
3 ❏ may be precipitated by chemical hair preparations
Q48 Finasteride:
1 ❏ is an enzyme inhibitor
2 ❏ is an anti-androgen
3 ❏ could be used in male-pattern baldness
Q49 Diamorphine:
1 ❏ is a controlled drug
2 ❏ is more lipid soluble than morphine
3 ❏ may be administered intramuscularly
Q50 Drugs that could be used in nausea and vomiting caused by palliative
cancer treatment include:
1 ❏ metoclopramide
2 ❏ haloperidol
3 ❏ prochlorperazine
12 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 12
Q51 Bacterial conjunctivitis:
1 ❏ is an infectious condition
2 ❏ affects both eyes
3 ❏ is associated with pain
Q52 Wet skin lesions:
1 ❏ indicate presence of a fungal infection
2 ❏ always require referral
3 ❏ potassium permanganate soaks may be recommended
Q53 Infant formula milk preparations:
1 ❏ may be based on cow’s milk
2 ❏ contain no fat
3 ❏ are presented as separate components to be reconstituted
before use
Q54 Staphylococcal napkin dermatitis:
1 ❏ occurs when the patient also has oral thrush
2 ❏ presents as a pustular rash
3 ❏ should be referred
Q55 Sialolithiasis:
1 ❏ is the inflammation of a salivary gland
2 ❏ presents with facial pain and swelling
3 ❏ is associated with eating
Questions 35–60 13
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 13
Q56 Accompanying conditions that require referral when patients present
with ear problems include:
1 ❏ history of perforated ear drum
2 ❏ discharge
3 ❏ pain
Q57 When patients present with complaints related to indigestion the pharmacist should enquire whether:
1 ❏ symptoms are related to food intake patterns
2 ❏ accompanying symptoms include vomiting or constipation
3 ❏ the patient is wheezing
Q58 Kaolin and Morphine Mixture:
1 ❏ is not recommended for acute diarrhoea
2 ❏ contains a low concentration of morphine
3 ❏ contains kaolin, which may reduce bioavailability of morphine
Q59 Meggezones pastilles:
1 ❏ contain pseudoephedrine
2 ❏ provide a soothing effect through the promotion of saliva
production
3 ❏ should not be recommended to diabetic patients
Q60 In migraine:
1 ❏ a soluble oral drug formulation is preferred to a solid oral
dosage form
2 ❏ an analgesic should be taken at the first sign of an attack
3 ❏ Syndol may be recommended
14 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 14
Questions 61–80
Directions: The following questions consist of a first statement followed
by a second statement. Decide whether the first statement is
true or false. Decide whether the second statement is true or
false. Then choose:
A ❏ if both statements are true and the second statement is a
correct explanation of the first statement
B ❏ if both statements are true but the second statement is NOT
a correct explanation of the first statement
C ❏ if the first statement is true but the second statement is false
D ❏ if the first statement is false but the second statement is true
E ❏ if both statements are false
Q61 Hydroxychloroquine is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Hydroxychloroquine is better tolerated than gold.
Q62 Acute attacks of porphyria may be precipitated by drug administration.
Progestogen-containing preparations should be avoided in patients with
porphyria.
Q63 Goserelin may be used in prostrate cancer. Goserelin may result in a
tumour ‘flare’.
Directions summarised
First statement Second statement
A True True Second statement is a correct
explanation of the first
B True True Second statement is NOT a correct
explanation of the first
C True False
D False True
E False False
Questions 61–80 15
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 15
Q64 Tacrolimus is chemically similar to ciclosporin. Tacrolimus has a similar
mode of action to ciclosporin.
Q65 In older patients, imipramine may cause hyponatraemia. Hyponatraemia occurs because of increased sodium re-uptake in the loop of
Henle.
Q66 Inflammation of the larynx requires the administration of atropine.
Atropine is a sympathomimetic agent.
Q67 Lidocaine is used in ventricular arrhythmias. Lidocaine suppresses
ventricular tachycardia and reduces the risk of ventricular fibrillation
following myocardial infarction.
Q68 Propranolol is preferred to atenolol in hypertensive patients with
moderate kidney damage. Propranolol is not water soluble and is not
excreted by the kidneys.
Q69 Filgrastim is used for neutropenia induced by cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Filgrastim is an example of a recombinant human erythropoietin.
Q70 Intake of drugs at therapeutic doses in mothers who are breast-feeding
are not likely to cause toxicity in the infant. Toxicity in the infant always
occurs when the drug enters the milk.
Q71 Pemphigus is an autoimmune reaction. Immunosuppressants such as
ciclosporin are the first line of treatment in pemphigus.
Q72 Ear pain during air travel occurs because of a problem in the external
ear. Nasal decongestants may be used to prevent this condition.
Q73 Agranulocytosis could occur as a result of Stelazine therapy. Stelazine
is trimipramine.
Q74 Tinnitus may be an adverse effect of furosemide. All diuretics may cause
tinnitus.
16 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 16
Q75 Concomitant use of St John’s wort and sertraline should be avoided. St
John’s wort is used for mild depression.
Q76 Co-codamol preparations that can be sold over-the-counter contain
codeine 60 mg. Co-codamol is a combination of codeine and dextropropoxyphene.
Q77 Varicella is a highly contagious disease. Prophylaxis for varicella is not
available.
Q78 Graduated compression hosiery should not be used during pregnancy.
Graduated compression hosiery prevents oedema.
Q79 First-line treatment of nocturnal enuresis is drug treatment. Amitriptyline
may be used in nocturnal enuresis.
Q80 Betahistine is indicated for motion sickness. Betahistine may be associated with headache.
Questions 81–100
Directions: These questions involve prescriptions or patient requests.
Read the prescription or patient request and answer the
questions.
Questions 81–85: Use the prescription below:
Patient’s name .........................................................................
Premarin 0.625 mg tablets
1 od m 28
Doctor’s signature .........................................................................
Questions 81–100 17
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 17
Q81 Premarin contains
A ❏ conjugated oestrogens 625 μg
B ❏ conjugated oestrogens 62.5 μg
C ❏ conjugated oestrogens 0.625 μg
D ❏ conjugated oestrogens 625 μg and levonorgestrel 75 μg
E ❏ conjugated oestrogens 0.625 μg and levonorgestrel 75 μg
Q82 Premarin is also available as:
1 ❏ a nasal spray
2 ❏ patches
3 ❏ tablets in a different strength
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Q83 Premarin:
1 ❏ is indicated in women with an intact uterus
2 ❏ may be used for prophylaxis of osteoporosis
3 ❏ is marketed by Wyeth
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
18 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 18
Q84 An equivalent product to Premarin is:
A ❏ Nuvelle
B ❏ Progynova
C ❏ Trisequens
D ❏ Prempak-C
E ❏ Femoston
Q85 The patient should:
1 ❏ take one Premarin tablet daily
2 ❏ take tablets for 28 days followed by a 7-day break before
starting the next pack
3 ❏ undertake regular visits to a general practitioner every 15
days
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Questions 86–87: Use the prescription below:
Patient’s name .........................................................................
Fosamax tablets
70 mg once per week
Doctor’s signature .........................................................................
Questions 81–100 19
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 19
Q86 Fosamax:
A ❏ contains disodium etidronate
B ❏ increases rate of bone turnover
C ❏ may cause dysphagia
D ❏ can impair bone mineralisation
E ❏ acts as a posterior pituitary hormone antagonist
Q87 Fosamax:
1 ❏ a weekly treatment costs about £6
2 ❏ is available only as 5 mg tablets
3 ❏ the patient has to take three tablets weekly
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Questions 88–90: Use the prescription below:
Patient’s name .........................................................................
Combivent
2 puffs qds
Doctor’s signature .........................................................................
20 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 20
Q88 Combivent consists of:
1 ❏ ipratropium
2 ❏ salbutamol
3 ❏ salmeterol
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Q89 Combivent is available as:
1 ❏ dry powder for inhalation
2 ❏ a nebuliser solution
3 ❏ an aerosol inhalation
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Q90 Combivent is not available. Which of the following products could be
recommended to replace Combivent?
1 ❏ Ventolin
2 ❏ Atrovent
3 ❏ Becotide
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Questions 81–100 21
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 21
Questions 91–92: Use the prescription below:
Q91 Depo-Medrone:
1 ❏ consists of methylprednisolone
2 ❏ is used to suppress an allergic reaction
3 ❏ may be used in rheumatic disease
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Q92 Depo-Medrone:
1 ❏ is administered parenterally
2 ❏ may be administered twice daily
3 ❏ is highly likely to cause cerebral oedema
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Patient’s name .........................................................................
Depo-Medrone
m 1
Doctor’s signature .........................................................................
22 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 22
Questions 93–96: Use the prescription below:
Q93 Persantin Retard is an:
A ❏ anticoagulant
B ❏ antiplatelet
C ❏ analgesic
D ❏ antihypertensive
E ❏ anti-arrhythmic drug
Q94 The side-effects that could occur with Persantin Retard include:
1 ❏ gastrointestinal effects
2 ❏ worsening of symptoms of coronary heart disease
3 ❏ hot flushes
A ❏ 1, 2, 3
B ❏ 1, 2 only
C ❏ 2, 3 only
D ❏ 1 only
E ❏ 3 only
Patient’s name .........................................................................
Persantin Retard
1 bd m 60
Aspirin 75 mg
1 daily m 60
Doctor’s signature .........................................................................
Questions 81–100 23
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 23
Q95 The pharmacist should dispense Persantin Retard in its original container
because:
A ❏ the pack also includes aspirin
B ❏ the original pack is better labelled
C ❏ such dispensing saves time in counting capsules
D ❏ the original pack contains a dessicant
E ❏ it is a controlled drug
Q96 Regarding the Persantin Retard, the patient is instructed to:
A ❏ take two capsules together at breakfast
B ❏ discard any capsules remaining 6 weeks after opening
C ❏ double the dose before undergoing surgery
D ❏ abstain from driving when taking these medications
E ❏ keep the medicines prescribed in a refrigerator
Questions 97–100: For each question read the patient request:
Q97 A parent requests a multivitamin preparation for a 6-year-old child.
Which product could be recommended?
A ❏ Forceval
B ❏ Vivioptal
C ❏ Maxepa
D ❏ En-De-Kay
E ❏ Calcium-Sandoz
24 Test 1: Questions
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 24
Q98 A mother requests a preparation for her 5-year-old son for a chesty
cough. Which of the following products is the most appropriate?
A ❏ Benylin with Codeine syrup
B ❏ Alupent syrup
C ❏ Actifed Chesty Coughs syrup
D ❏ Vicks Medinite syrup
E ❏ Neoclarityn syrup
Q99 A patient asks for ibuprofen gel. The pharmacist may dispense:
A ❏ Oruvail
B ❏ Voltarol
C ❏ Dubam
D ❏ Brufen
E ❏ Ibutop
Q100 A patient asks for a preparation as a vaginal cream for candidiasis.
Which product is the most appropriate?
A ❏ Canesten
B ❏ Ortho-Gynest
C ❏ Eurax
D ❏ Bactroban
E ❏ Dermovate
Questions 81–100 25
02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 25 02 ch1 5/7/06 1:18 pm Page 26
Test 1
Answers
A1 B
Diamox contains acetazolamide, which is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
administered orally or by the parenteral route. Xalatan contains latanoprost,
a prostaglandin analogue, and Trusopt contains dorzolamide, a carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor. Timoptol and Betoptic both consist of beta-blockers
containing timolol and betaxolol respectively.
A2 B
Lipitor contains atorvastatin. An alternative preparation is Lescol, which
contains another statin, fluvastatin. Cozaar contains losartan, an angiotensinII receptor antagonist, Zestril contains lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting
enzyme inhibitor, Cardura contains doxazosin, an alpha-adrenoceptor
blocking drug, and Trandate contains labetalol, a beta-adrenoceptor blocking
drug.
A3 A
Tambocor contains flecainide, which may be of value in serious symptomatic
ventricular arrhythmias. It is also indicated for junctional re-entry tachycardias
and for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. It is available as tablets or injections for
intravenous administration. Hazardous interactions may be expected when
flecainide is administered concurrently with drugs such as amiodarone,
tricyclic antidepressants, terfenadine, ritonavir, dolasetron, clozapine, verapamil, and with beta-blockers. Amiodarone is a drug that is also indicated in
the treatment of arrhythmias. An example of a proprietary name for amiodarone is Cordarone X.
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A4 C
Terazosin is a selective alpha-blocker that relaxes smooth muscle and is indicated in benign prostatic hyperplasia because it increases urinary flow rate
and improves obstructive symptoms. Terazosin is also indicated in the management of mild-to-moderate hypertension. After the first dose a rapid reduction
in blood pressure may occur.
A5 D
Legionnaires’ disease is an acute respiratory tract infection caused by a
Gram-negative bacillus of the Legionella species. It is characterised by the
development of pneumonia. The incubation period is from 2 to 10 days. The
condition is attributed to the inhalation of water droplets, such as from water
generated in air-conditioning cooling systems and in hot-water systems, that
are contaminated with the microorganism. Prevention techniques are based
on the maintenance of air-conditioning filters and water systems.
A6 D
Trigger factors for migraine include intake of specific food such as caffeine,
chocolate, cheese and alcoholic drinks, exposure to light, hunger and missed
meals, and air travel.
A7 D
Anthisan contains mepyramine, an antihistamine. Dequacaine contains benzocaine and dequalinium, Merocaine contains benzocaine and cetylpyridinium,
BurnEze contains benzocaine, and Proctosedyl contains cinchocaine and
hydrocortisone. Benzocaine and cinchocaine are anaesthetics.
A8 A
During the FIP congress in Japan in 1993 the international guidelines for Good
Pharmacy Practice (GPP) were adopted. A revised version of these guidelines,
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Standards for Quality of Pharmacy Services, was endorsed during the 35th
meeting of the World Health Organization’s Expert Committee on Specifications for Pharmaceutical Preparations in April 1997 and this was approved
by the FIP Congress in Vancouver in 1997.
A9 C
Anti-D(Rh0) immunoglobulin should be administered immediately or within
72 h of any sensitising episode during abortion, miscarriage or giving birth
to a rhesus-positive foetus. It prevents a rhesus-negative mother from forming
antibodies to rhesus-positive cells that may pass into the maternal circulation.
It is intended to protect any subsequent child from haemolytic disease. It is
available as an injection.
A10 E
Buscopan contains hyoscine, which is a quaternary ammonium compound
having antimuscarinic activity. It is indicated for symptomatic relief of gastrointestinal or genitourinary disorders characterised by smooth muscle spasm.
Zantac contains ranitidine, which is an H2-receptor antagonist that promotes
healing of peptic ulcers by reducing gastric output as a result of histamine H2-
receptor blockade. Nexium contains esomeprazole and Pariet contains
rabeprazole, both of which are proton pump inhibitors. The proton pump
inhibitors inhibit gastric acid output by blocking the hydrogen–potassium–
adenosine triphosphatase enzyme system of the gastric parietal cells. Gaviscon
is an antacid preparation that can be used for the management of symptoms
of peptic ulceration. The constitution of Gaviscon preparations varies according to dosage forms. Gaviscon tablets contain alginic acid, dried aluminium
hydroxide, magnesium trisilicate and sodium bicarbonate, whereas Gaviscon
liquid contains sodium alginate, sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate.
A11 D
Famvir is a proprietary preparation of famciclovir (used for the treatment of
herpes virus infections).
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A12 C
Sporanox is a proprietary preparation of itraconazole (triazole antifungal).
A13 E
Lamisil is a proprietary preparation of terbinafine (antifungal).
A14 E
Amphotericin is active against most fungi and yeasts. It can be used for intestinal candidiasis.
A15 C
Both levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin are quinolones. Levofloxacin has greater
activity against pneumococci than ciprofloxacin.
A16 C
Tavanic is a proprietary preparation of levofloxacin.
A17 A
Nalidixic acid is a quinolone that is indicated only for urinary tract infections.
A18 A
Atenolol is a beta-adrenoceptor blocker that, when administered during
pregnancy, may cause intrauterine growth restriction, neonatal hypoglycaemia
and bradycardia.
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A19 D
Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic drug that, when administered during the
first trimester of pregnancy, increases the risk of teratogenesis, including an
increased risk of neural tube defects. To counteract the risk of neural tube
defects, adequate folate supplements are advised before and during
pregnancy. Administration of carbamazepine during the third trimester may
cause vitamin K deficiency and increase the risk of neonatal bleeding.
A20 C
Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that, when administered during the
third trimester, may cause tachycardia, irritability and muscle spasms in the
neonate.
A21 B
The maximum daily dose for diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
drug, is 150 mg.
A22 C
The maximum daily dose for sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase type-5 inhibitor,
is 100 mg.
A23 E
The maximum daily dose for sumatriptan, a 5HT1-agonist, is 300 mg.
A24 D
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug, specifically a phenothiazine derivative, that is characterised by pronounced sedative effects. Cautionary labels
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recommended are to avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps
and a warning that it may cause drowsiness and, if affected, not to drive or
operate machinery and to avoid alcoholic drinks.
A25 E
Dapsone is an anti-leprotic drug. It is also used in malaria prophylaxis and in
dermatitis herpetiformis. The cautionary label ‘Do not stop taking this medicine
except on your doctor’s advice’ is recommended. This label is recommended
for use on preparations that contain a drug which has to be taken over long
periods without the patient perceiving any benefit, or for a drug where withdrawal is likely to present a particular hazard. In the management of leprosy,
dapsone may be used in combination with other drugs and treatment is usually
for a few months. Withdrawal of dapsone therapy in skin conditions may be
associated with sudden flare-ups.
A26 C
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant. The cautionary label ‘Follow the printed
instructions you have been given with this medicine’ is recommended. An
appropriate treatment card should be given to the patient where advice on
anticoagulant therapy, necessity of monitoring and precautions are presented.
A27 E
Alupent, which contains orciprenaline, an adrenoceptor agonist, is available
as a syrup.
A28 C
Atrovent, which contains ipratropium, an antimuscarinic bronchodilator, is
available as an aerosol for inhalation, as a nebuliser solution, and as dry
powder for inhalation.
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A29 A
AeroChamber is a proprietary name for a spacer device. It is a large spacer
with a one-way valve. Spacer devices eliminate the disadvantage associated
with metered-dose inhalers, where drug administration may be compromised
due to lack of coordination between actuation of the inhaler and inhalation.
A30 D
Beconase, which contains beclometasone, a corticosteroid, is available as a
nasal spray.
A31 C
Klaricid, which contains clarithromycin, a macrolide antibacterial agent, is
available as yellow tablets in 250 mg and 500 mg strengths.
A32 A
Diovan, which contains valsartan, an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist, is
available as yellow tablets 40 mg.
A33 B
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, is available as brown tablets at 1 mg
strength. Warfarin is also available as tablets in other colours in the 0.5 mg,
3 mg and 5 mg strengths.
A34 E
Zomig, which contains zolmitriptan, a 5HT1-agonist, is available as yellow
tablets of 2.5 mg.
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A35 B
Cisplatin is a platinum compound that is used alone or in combination therapy
for the treatment of testicular, lung, cervical, bladder, head and neck and
ovarian cancer. It is administered intravenously and is available as powder
for injection. The powder formulation should be reconstituted with water for
injections to produce a 1 mg/mL solution. Subsequently it is diluted into 2 L
sodium chloride 0.9% or sodium chloride and glucose solution. The infusion
is given over 6–8 h.
A36 D
Ceftazidime is a ‘third-generation’ cephalosporin antibacterial agent. It has
greater activity than cefuroxime against certain Gram-negative bacteria and
less activity against Gram-positive bacteria. Ceftazidime is administered by
deep intramuscular injection or intravenous injection or infusion. It is not available as tablets.
A37 B
Both ergotamine and zolmitriptan are indicated for migraine attacks. When
ergotamine and zolmitriptan are administered concurrently there is an
increased risk of vasospasm. Use of ergotamine should be avoided for 6 h
after administration of zolmitriptan, and use of zolmitriptan should be avoided
for 24 h after administration of ergotamine. This reaction could be potentially
hazardous. When warfarin is administered to a patient receiving a sulphonylurea such as gliclazide, this could enhance the hypoglycaemic effect and may
also result in changes in the anticoagulant effect. There is no evidence of a
potentially hazardous interaction when clindamycin is administered to patients
receiving combined oral contraceptives.
A38 B
Griseofulvin and rifampicin are enzyme inducers. They can increase the rate
of synthesis of cytochrome P450 enzymes, resulting in enhanced clearance of
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other drugs. When enzyme inducers are administered to patients receiving
warfarin, a decreased effect of warfarin results. However, warfarin itself is not
known to be an enzyme inducer.
A39 E
Zyloric contains allopurinol, which requires dose-reduction in patients with liver
disease. Natrilix contains indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that should be
avoided in severe liver disease. Nizoral contains ketoconazole, an antifungal
agent that should be avoided in liver disease.
A40 A
Capsulitis is a disorder affecting the shoulder joint. It may be caused by unaccustomed movement or overuse. The condition is characterised by inflammation of the fibrous tissue surrounding the shoulder joint.
A41 B
Any facial lesion that is accompanied by swollen lymph glands in the neck
requires referral as this suggests systemic disease or an infection. A rash that
presents as a butterfly distribution over the nose and cheeks requires referral
as this could be caused by systemic lupus erythematosus. This is a rare
condition that is associated with auto-antibody formation. A butterfly rash
covering the nose and cheeks is a very characteristic symptom. A scaly rash
with mild erythema affecting the forehead and eyebrows indicates seborrhoeic
eczema. This condition can extend to the nose and pinna of ears. Emollient
creams and ointments are useful in the management of this condition as they
hydrate the skin.
A42 B
Gaviscon liquid and Bisodol Heartburn Relief tablets contain sodium bicarbonate. Gaviscon liquid also contains sodium alginate and calcium carbonate.
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Bisodol Heartburn Relief tablets contain alginic acid and magaldrate in
addition to the sodium bicarbonate. Maalox Plus tablets contain aluminium
hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide and simeticone.
A43 A
The pain and inflammation associated with a bee sting are caused by agents
that include histamine, apamin, which is neurotoxic, and the enzyme
hyaluronidase, which breaks down the intercellular tissue structure, promoting
the penetration of the venom into the human tissues.
A44 B
Colofac (mebeverine) and Spasmonal (alverine) contain an antispasmodic
agent, whereas Fybogel (ispaghula husk) presents a bulk-forming laxative.
Alverine and mebeverine are direct relaxants of intestinal smooth muscle,
which may relieve pain in irritable bowel syndrome.
A45 E
Paradichlorobenzene is an organic compound that is included in products,
such as Cerumol drops, which are intended for ear wax removal. The rationale
for its inclusion is based on the ability of paradichlorobenzene to penetrate
the ear wax plugs. In Cerumol it is available with chlorobutanol and arachis
oil.
A46 B
Because of its antiplatelet effect, the administration of aspirin to patients receiving warfarin is associated with a potentiated anticoagulant effect leading to
an increased risk of bleeding. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation by
inactivating cyclo-oxygenase, an enzyme involved in the platelet aggregation
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pathway through the interference with thromboxane A2. Vitamin K is required
for the procoagulation activity. Aspirin does not interfere with vitamin K synthesis. However warfarin, which is an oral anticoagulant, acts as a vitamin K
antagonist.
A47 D
Male-pattern baldness is also referred to as androgenetic alopecia. It occurs
when genetically predisposed hair follicles in the scalp respond to stimulation
by circulating androgens.
A48 A
Finasteride is an inhibitor of the enzyme 5 -reductase, which is responsible
for the metabolism of testosterone into the androgen dihydrotestosterone.
Finasteride is used in benign prostatic hyperplasia and at a lower dose in
male-pattern baldness.
A49 A
Diamorphine is an opioid drug, which in many countries is classified as a
‘controlled drug’, indicating that special prescription and dispensing requirements are necessary. Diamorphine is more lipid soluble than morphine and
this allows for effective doses to be injected in smaller volumes. Diamorphine
may be administered by mouth, subcutaneously, intramuscularly or by intravenous injection.
A50 A
The three drugs are used in the management of nausea and vomiting caused
by palliative cancer treatment, which commonly features cytotoxics and opioid
drugs. The three drugs are useful in counteracting nausea and vomiting
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induced by opioids and cytotoxic agents. Haloperidol is also used in palliative care to counteract nausea and vomiting attributable to chemical causes
such as hypercalcaemia and renal failure.
A51 D
Bacterial conjunctivitis is an eye disorder characterised by inflammation of the
conjunctiva caused by a bacterial infection. A common microorganism associated with this condition is Staphylococcus aureus. The condition does not
necessarily affect both eyes. However, infection can be spread from one eye
to the other. The patient complains of itchiness or grittiness on the surface of
the eye but this is differentiated from pain.
A52 E
Wet skin lesions or weeping lesions may or may not be infected. Referral is
not always warranted. It is recommended to refer when the lesion is presenting purulent discharge, which indicates an infective component. When the
exudate is clear and watery, the patient may be advised to undertake potassium permanganate soaks to cleanse the lesion.
A53 D
Infant formula milk preparations are manufactured to mimic as much as
possible the composition of the mother’s milk. Most preparations are based
on cow’s milk, and modifications, such as the addition of carbohydrates, are
made to achieve the formula. The fat content of infant formula milk is adjusted
to be similar to mother’s milk. Some preparations may substitute cow’s milk fat
with vegetable and animal fats that are more easily digested. Infant formula
milk preparations may be presented as ready-to-use preparations or as
powders for reconstitution. Dried milk formulations should be reconstituted
according to the manufacturer’s instructions and involve adding water to the
powder formulation.
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A54 C
Staphylococcal napkin dermatitis is a condition where a rash develops in the
napkin area. A rash that has a pustular appearance, as opposed to a confluent red rash, which is associated with napkin dermatitis, indicates a
bacterial infection caused by the Staphylococcus species. A patient presenting such symptoms should be referred as antibacterial treatment may be indicated. Candidal napkin dermatitis, where infection of the napkin area with
Candida species occurs, is associated with oral thrush (candidiasis).
A55 C
Sialolithiasis is a condition characterised by the formation of calculi (salivary
stones) in the salivary ducts or salivary glands. This leads to obstruction and
hence accumulation of saliva within the gland especially when eating. The
patient presents with facial pain and swelling, which may last for a few hours.
A56 A
A history or suspicion of a perforated ear drum requires referral for assessment of the damage and treatment of the condition through systemic drug
administration. Discharge may reflect an infective component such as in otitis
media and infective dermatitis. Earache generally occurs with otitis media and
requires referral for diagnosis.
A57 B
Enquiry whether the symptoms are related to food intake patterns confirms that
the origin of discomfort is in the gastrointestinal tract. Vomiting or constipation
with indigestion warrant referral because the clinical presentation may
indicate obstruction in the gastrointestinal tract.
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A58 A
Products containing adsorbents such as kaolin are not recommended for acute
diarrhoea. Adsorption may interfere with the absorption of other drugs from
the intestine. Oral rehydration therapy should be considered to be the first-line
treatment in acute diarrhoea. Kaolin and Morphine Mixture is an oral suspension that contains 4% chloroform and morphine tincture. Absorption of
morphine after oral administration of Kaolin and Morphine may be reduced
because it may become adsorbed to the kaolin.
A59 C
Meggezones pastilles contain menthol. They provide a soothing effect for sore
throats through the promotion of saliva secretion. The preparation contains
glucose as excipients and therefore should not be recommended to diabetic
patients.
A60 A
In migraine gastric motility is reduced and this may compromise drug absorption. Soluble oral drug formulations are preferred to solid oral dosage forms
because absorption is faster. Analgesics should be taken at the first sign of
an attack. Syndol contains paracetamol (non-opioid drug), caffeine, codeine
(opioid drug) and doxylamine (antihistamine). Syndol presents a compound
analgesic that also contains caffeine, which is a weak stimulant claimed to
enhance the analgesic effect, and a sedating antihistamine that confers antiemetic activity.
A61 B
Hydroxychloroquine and gold are examples of disease-modifying
antirheumatic drugs that can be used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Hydroxychloroquine is better tolerated than gold. Gold is associated with
severe skin reactions and blood disorders, which could be sudden and fatal.
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A62 B
Porphyrias are a group of rare disorders that are characterised by a disturbed
metabolism of porphyrin, which contributes to the formation of the ironcontaining complex, haem. Attacks may be precipitated by drug administration. Progestogens are porphyrinogenic and should be avoided in patients
with porphyria.
A63 B
Goserelin is a gonadorelin analogue that can be used in prostate cancer.
During the initial weeks of treatment with gonadorelin analogues, increased
production of testosterone may result in the progression of prostate cancer
(tumour ‘flare’). This stage may present with increased bone pain, back pain
caused by spinal cord compression, and ureteric obstruction.
A64 D
Tacrolimus and ciclosporin are immunosuppressants. Tacrolimus is a fungal
macrolide and has a different chemical structure to ciclosporin. However, it
has a similar mode of action.
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Tacrolimus
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A65 C
Imipramine is a tricylic antidepressant and, as with all types of antidepressants, hyponatraemia may occur in older people. This is possibly due to
inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
A66 E
Inflammation of the larynx (laryngitis) is usually due to a bacterial or viral infection and is a very common condition after a common cold. When the cause
of laryngitis is a bacterial infection, an antibacterial agent may be appropriate. Atropine is an antimuscarinic drug that can be used in the symptomatic
relief of gastrointestinal disorders characterised by smooth muscle spasm, in
mydriasis and cycloplegia, for the reversal of bradycardia, and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
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A67 A
Lidocaine is indicated for ventricular arrhythmias, especially after myocardial
infarction, because it suppresses ventricular tachycardia and reduces the risk
of ventricular fibrillation.
A68 A
In moderate kidney damage, the dose of atenolol should be reduced. Atenolol
is a highly water-soluble drug that is excreted by the kidneys. Hence it may
accumulate in the body to a greater extent than propranolol, which is predominantly excreted by the liver.
A69 C
Filgrastim is indicated for the reduction in duration of neutropenia as a result
of cytotoxic chemotherapy. Filgrastim is a recombinant human granulocytecolony stimulating factor (G-CSF).
A70 E
When drugs are administered to breast-feeding mothers, the concentration of
some drugs in milk may exceed the concentration in maternal plasma. Therapeutic doses in the mother may result in toxic doses in the milk. Toxicity in the
infant depends on the drug and on the amount of drug in the milk.
A71 C
Pemphigus is a skin condition characterised by severe and chronic blistering,
which is attributed to an autoimmune reaction. Oral corticosteroids are the
first-line treatment. Immunosuppressants are considered either when optimum
management is not achieved with oral corticosteroids or when corticosteroids
are not tolerated or the dose has to be decreased.
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A72 D
Ear pain during air travel when the aircraft is descending occurs when the
eustachian tube, which normally equalises the pressure, is blocked and
pressure inside the middle ear is less than on the outside (barotrauma). The
tympanic membrane is sucked and may rupture. Nasal decongestants may be
used to prevent eustachian tube blockage hence preventing barotrauma.
A73 C
Stelazine contains trifluoperazine, a phenothiazine. It may cause pancytopenia, which includes agranulocytosis. Agranulocytosis is a condition resulting in a marked decrease in the number of granulocytes.
A74 C
Tinnitus is an adverse effect of furosemide, especially when it is administered
in large parenteral doses, as a rapid administration and in renal impairment.
Not all diuretics are associated with tinnitus.
A75 B
Increased serotonergic effects have been reported when St John’s wort is given
with selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Concomitant use should
be avoided. Sertraline is an SSRI. St John’s wort is a herbal remedy that can
be used for mild depression.
A76 E
Co-codamol preparations, which may be sold to the public as over-the-counter
medicines, contain codeine 8 mg. Co-codamol is a combination of codeine
(opioid drug) and paracetamol.
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A77 C
Varicella (chickenpox) is an infection caused by the varicella zoster virus,
which in the acute phase is highly contagious. It is transmitted via airborne
droplets or by contact with active lesions. Varicella zoster immunoglobulin is
available for prophylaxis for individuals who are at increased risk of severe
varicella or who have significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster.
A78 D
Graduated compression hosiery is in some cases recommended during pregnancy against the varicosis that may result. Compression with graduated
hosiery allows haemostasis to occur and therefore reduces oedema and
swelling.
A79 D
Nocturnal enuresis is persistent involuntary urination during sleep and it is a
common condition in young children. Drug treatment is not appropriate in
children under 5 years of age and it is usually not needed in those under 7
years. Psychotherapy and enuresis alarms may be used. Enuresis alarms
should be first-line treatment for well-motivated children aged over 7 years
because their use may achieve a more sustained reduction of enuresis than
the use of drugs. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline, imipramine
and less often, nortriptyline may be used in nocturnal enuresis. However,
relapse is common after drug withdrawal.
A80 D
Betahistine is an analogue of histamine and is indicated for vertigo, tinnitus
and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease. Side-effects of betahistine
include gastrointestinal disturbances, headache, rashes and pruritus.
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A81 A
Premarin is an example of a product that presents hormone replacement
therapy and contains conjugated oestrogens 625 μg.
A82 E
Premarin is also available as tablets of 1.25 mg conjugated oestrogens and
as a vaginal cream, which contains 625 μg/g conjugated oestrogens.
A83 C
Premarin is not indicated in women with intact uterus because it does not
present cyclical or continuous administration of progestogen. In women with
intact uterus, the administration of progestogen for at least 12 days per month
reduces the risk of endometrial cancer. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
is an option for the prophylaxis of osteoporosis and Premarin may be used
for this purpose. However, guidelines in a number of countries advise that HRT
should not be considered as first-line therapy for the long-term prevention of
osteoporosis in women over 50 years of age. Premarin is marketed by Wyeth.
A84 B
Progynova is another product that presents an oestrogen component only and
therefore is indicated in women without intact uterus. It contains estradiol
valerate. Nuvelle, Trisequens and Femoston are examples of products containing estradiol with progestogen, whereas Prempak-C is an example of a
product that contains conjugated oestrogens with progestogen.
A85 D
Patient should take one Premarin tablet daily and start a new pack once the
28-day pack has finished. The therapy is continuous and there is no 7-day
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break. Patient should be advised to maintain regular visits to a general
practitioner every 12 months but should be advised to seek advice from the
pharmacist or the general practitioner should any symptoms that warrant withdrawal of the HRT occur. Such symptoms include sudden, severe chest pain,
sudden breathlessness or cough with blood-stained sputum, unexplained
severe pain in the calf of one leg, severe stomach pain, serious neurological
effects including unusually severe, prolonged headache and blood pressure
above systolic 160 mmHg and diastolic 100 mmHg.
A86 C
Fosamax contains alendronic acid, a biphosphonate that is adsorbed onto
hydroxyapatite crystals in the bone resulting in a deceleration in the rate of
growth and dissolution of the bone. Use of alendronic acid therefore results
in a decreased rate of bone turnover. Alendronic acid may cause oesophageal
reactions and patients should be advised to seek advice if they develop
symptoms of oesophageal irritation such as dysphagia.
A87 D
Fosamax Once Weekly is available as a pack containing four tablets of 70 mg
strength at a price of £22.80. At this dosage regimen, weekly treatment costs
about £6. Fosamax tablets are available in 5 mg, 10 mg and 70 mg
strengths. The patient has been prescribed one 70 mg tablet once a week.
A88 B
Combivent contains ipratropium (antimuscarinic bronchodilator) and salbutamol (selective beta2 agonist).
A89 C
Combivent is available as an aerosol inhalation and as a nebuliser solution.
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A90 B
Ventolin contains salbutamol and Atrovent contains ipratropium. The two
products can be used together to replace the combination product Combivent.
Becotide contains beclometasone (corticosteroid).
A91 A
Depo-Medrone consists of methylprednisolone (corticosteroid), which is used
for the suppression of inflammatory and allergic disorders and in rheumatic
disease.
A92 D
Depo-Medrone is presented as an aqueous suspension that can be administered either by deep intramuscular injection into the gluteal muscle or by intraarticular or intrasynovial injection for rheumatic disease. Administration can
be repeated after 2–3 weeks or, for rheumatic disease, at intervals of 7–35
days. Corticosteroids, including methylprednisolone, can be used in the
management of raised intracranial pressure or in cerebral oedema resulting
from malignancy.
A93 B
Persantin Retard contains dipyridamole which, like aspirin, is an antiplatelet
drug.
A94 A
Side-effects of dipyridamole include gastrointestinal effects, worsening of
symptoms of coronary heart disease and hot flushes.
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A95 D
The original pack of Persantin Retard contains a dessicant that protects the
modified-release capsules.
A96 B
The patient should be advised to take one capsule of Persantin Retard twice
daily with food and to take one tablet of aspirin daily. Persantin Retard
capsules are unstable in humid conditions, so the patient should be advised
to open one pack and to use the capsules before opening another pack. If
any capsules remain 6 weeks after opening a pack, they should be discarded.
A97 A
Forceval is a multivitamin preparation, which is available as adult and paediatric formulations (Forceval Junior capsules). Vivioptal is also a multivitamin
preparation. It is presented for children over 12 years of age and for adults.
Maxepa consists of a fish-oil preparation rich in omega-3-marine triglycerides,
En-De-Kay presents a fluoride supplement whereas Calcium-Sandoz contains
calcium salts.
A98 C
Actifed Chesty Coughs syrup contains guaifenesin (expectorant), pseudoephedrine (decongestant) and triprolidine (antihistamine). Benylin with
Codeine syrup contains codeine (antitussive), diphenhydramine (antihistamine)
and menthol. Alupent syrup contains orciprenaline, an adrenoceptor agonist
indicated for reversible airways obstruction. Vicks Medinite syrup contains
dextromethorphan (antitussive), doxylamine (antihistamine), ephedrine (decongestant) and paracetamol (analgesic and anti-pyretic). Vicks Medinite is not
recommended for children under 10 years of age. Neoclarityn syrup contains
desloratidine, a non-sedating antihistamine.
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A99 E
Ibutop gel contains ibuprofen. Brufen contains ibuprofen but the dosage forms
available are tablets, syrup and effervescent granules. Voltarol (diclofenac)
and Oruvail (ketoprofen) present other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
in the form of gels. Dubam products contain rubefacients.
A100 A
Canesten is presented as a vaginal cream, which contains clotrimazole, an
imidazole antifungal agent that is indicated in vaginal candidiasis. OrthoGynest is presented as an intravaginal cream that contains estriol and which
is indicated as a topical hormone replacement therapy. Eurax contains crotamiton, an anti-pruritic, Bactroban contains mupirocin, an antibacterial agent, and
Dermovate contains clobetasol, a corticosteroid
8:36 PM
6

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