SOLVED MCQs FOR ALL

Write the correct Answers:
A. The father of International Law is considered to be:
1: Suarez
2: Pufendorf
3: Hugo Grotius
4: Openheim

B: The Vienna convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in:
1: 1815
2: 1958
3: 1961
4: 1963

C. The International court of justice was established:
1: 1907
2: 1919
3: 1945

D. A state has the right to use force in case of:
1: To obtain raw materials
2: To ensure the the protection of human rights
3: Armed attack

E. Foreign warships have:
1: The right of free passage in the territorial waters
2: Are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial waters
3: The right of innocent passage in the Territorial waters.

F. A state has the right to exploit in the continental shelf:
1: Living resources
2: Non-Living resources
3: Both Living and non-Living resources

G. The principle of rebus sic stantibus means:
1: A State cannot use force
2: There is not a crime without Law
3: Fundamental change of circumstances
4: A treaty must be adhered to faithfully

H. A diplomatic agent is immuned from local jurisdiction:
1: In all cases
2: Criminal cases
3: In cases involving personal property

I. Extradition is normally granted:
1: In all cases
2: In criminal cases
3: In civil cases

J. The term of Judges of International court of justice is:
1: Three years
2: Five years
3: Six years
4: Nine years

K. Harmon Doctrine means:
1: A State cannot interfere in internal affairs of other states
2: A State is not bound to recognize a government installed by a foreign power
3: A State has absolute right over the water resources of an international river within its own territory.
4: A State has the right to use power to protect its nationals

L. A State enjoys immunity from the jurisdiction of foreign jurisdiction of foreign courts:
1: All cases
2: Public Cases
3: Private cases

M. The International Law Commission is a body to:
1: Investigate situations which may threaten international peace and security
2: Codify International Law
3: Conciliate between/among the disputing states
4: Constitute an arbitration tribunal for the pacific settlement of a dispute.

N. The principle of jus oogens means:
1: A peremptory norm of International Law
2: A State is bound by the provisions of a forced treaty
3: A successor State is bound by the acts, of a predecessor State.

O. Diplomatic asylum means:
1: A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving state
2: Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
3: Asylum provided to a political leader by foreign State.

P. Nationalization of foreign property is:
1: A State cannot nationalize foreign property
2: A State can nationalize foreign property without compensation
3: A State can nationalize foreign property with compensation

Q. The first case taken-up by the international court of justice was:
1: Nationality decrees in Tunis and Morocco
2: Lighthouse in Crete and Samos
3: Corfu channel
4: Asylum case

R. The Universal Declaration of human rights was adopted in:
1: 1776
2: 1795
3: 1917
4: 1945
5: 1948
6: 1966

S. The Schooner exchange case dealt with the principle of:
1: A State has sovereign right over its natural resources
2: A State's right of reprisal in case of violation of rights
3: A State's courts have to accept the validity of a foreign State's acts.
4: A government is free to seek military assistance from a friendly State.

T. The Estrada Doctrine relates to:
1: Delimitation of boundaries
2: Recognition of a government
3: Jurisdiction over aliens
4: Recognition of a State





Write the correct answer:

(A) The doctrine, which accepted the "Law of Nature" as an independent source of rules of the law of nations, was propounded by:
1: Bodin
2: Machiavelli
3: Hobbes
4: Grotius


(B) The permanent court of arbitration was established by:
1: The Hague Conferences of 1899 and 1907
2: The Washington Naval Conference of 1922
3: The Vienna Conference of 1968-69
4: The Geneva Convention of April 29, 1958.

(c) "International Law is not true Law but positive international morality only". Who said it?
1: Pufendof
2: Austin
3: Bentham
4: Pollock

(D) "Treates are the supreme law of the land". Where is it laid down?
1: Constitution of USA
2: UN Charter
3: Statute of the ICJ
4: British Constitution

(E) When was Monroe Doctrine originally announced?
1: 1623
2: 1723
3: 1823
4: 1923

(F) A Vasal State is:
1: One which is completely under the suzerainty of another State
2: One which is supposed to exist in every vessel of the State, on the high seas.
3: A Protectorate
4: A State which is a member of common wealth

(G) A Condominium is :
1: A State of Chaos
2: A State enjoying Dominion status
3: A particular territory over which joint dominion is exercised by two or more external powers.
4: A State with a Federal form of Constitution

(H) ANZUS stands for:
1: African National Zest Under Sovereignty
2: Association for security purpose of Australia, New Zealand and the United States.
3: Afghan National Zealous United Struggle
4: All Nigerian Zambian Ugandan Society

(I) IAEA is used for:
1: International Atomic energy Agency
2: Islamic aid from Emirates for Afghanistan
3: International agency for Ethiopian Aid
4: Imperial Agency for Europ and Asia.

(J) What is Contraband?
1: All Narcotics
2: Articles banned by a government
3: All Smuggled material
4: Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war.







Write the correct answers:

A. The principle of exhaustion of local remedies is related to:
1: The immunities of a political agent
2: State responsibility
3: Extradition of foreign criminals

B. The headquarters of The United Nations is located at:
1: Geneva
2:Vienna
3: New York
4: Washington
5: Rome
6: Paris.

C. The permanent Court of International Justice has its headquarter at:
1: London
2: Hamburg
3: Luxembourg
4: Geneva
5: The Hague
6: Nowhere

D. The headquarters of ICAO are located at:
1: Vienna
2: New York
3: Nairobi
4: Montreal

E. An agreement between a State and a multinational corporation
1: A Treaty
2: Not a treaty

F. A member of the International Law Commission is:
1: Appointed by his state
2: Appointed by the UN secretary-General
3: Elected by the general assembly

G. The term of a member of the International Law Commission is:
1: 3 years
2: 5 Years
3: 7 Years
4: 9 years

H. A candidate for the International court of justice is nominated by:
1: The National Government
2: The National group
3:The president of the permanent court of arbitration .

I. A Judge of the ICJ is elected by:
1: The general assembly
2: The security council
3: Both the general assembly and the Security council

J, The Security council consists of:
1: 15 members
2: 5 members
3: 9 members
4: 34 members
5: 54 members

K. An ad-hoc judge of the ICJ is:
1: Elected by General Assembly
2: Elected by the Security Council
3: Appointed by the Secretary General
4: Appointed by the State

L. Tobar doctrine is related to:
1: The Cognition of a State
2: The recognition of a Government
3: The recognition of insurgents.

M. The Vienna convention of consular relations was adopted in:
1: 1815
2: 1961
3: 1963
4: 1969
5: 1975
6: 1978

N. The territorial waters of State may extend up to:
1: 3 miles
2: 6 miles
3: 9 miles
4: 12 miles
5: 24 miles
6: 50 miles
7: 200 miles

O. A land-locked State:
1: Cannot fly its own flag
2: Can fly its own flag
3: Can fly its flag with the flag of another State

P. The definition of aggression was adopted in:
1: 1989
2: 1907
3: 1919
4: 1928
5: 1945
6: 1974
7: 1983

Q. The baseline is line from which the limits of:
1: Air space are measured
2: Maritime zones are measured
3: The land frontiers of the two States are demarcated.

R. The theory of absolute territorial sovereignty:
1: Allows a State to have absolute jurisdiction over all foreigners.
2: Advocates for exclusive right of the territorial State over water resources of an international river.
3: Entitles a State to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over foreign ships.

S. The doctrine of " inter-temporal law":
1: Means that in case of conflict between Municipal Law and International Law, the latter will prevail.
2: Relates to the question of application of different legal systems prevailing at successive periods.
3: Means that the principle of natural justice take precedence over other rules.

T. The eastern Greenland case rose between:
1: Norway and the U.K
2: Norway and Denmark
3: Norway and Iceland
4: Denmark and Germany.










Write correct answers:

1. Who is the president of the International court of justice?

a: Muhammad Haleem
b: William Rehaquist
c: Nagendra Singh
d: Hisashi Owada 2. Who is the present president of World peace through Law center:

a: Charles S Rhyne
b: Warren E Burger
c: Perez de Cueller

3. How often in a year is the "American Journal of International " published?

a: Annually
b: Quarterly
c: Monthly

4. Where is the secretariat of American Society of International Law located?
a: San Francisco
b: Ann Arbor
c: New Jersey
d: Washington DC

5. Where from is "The International Law and Comparative Law quarterly" published?
a: London
b: New York
c: Paris
d: Tokyo
e: Beijing

6. When was the UN charter of human Rights adopted?

a: December 10, 1945
b: December 10, 1948
c: December 10, 1951

7. When did the General Assembly of the United nations adopted the charter of economics rights and duties of States?

a: December 12, 1974
b: December 12, 1980
c: December 12, 1987

8. The diplomatic Conference on Humanitarian Law was held in:

a: 1974
b: 1975
c: 1976

9. The convention on the settlement of investment Disputes between States and Nationals of other States came into force on:

a: October 14, 1966
b: October 14, 1967
c: October 14, 1968

10. The declaration on the Elimination of all Forms of Intolerance and Discrimination Based on Religion or Belief was adopted at the United Nations by consensus in:

a: 1981
b: 1982
c: 1983

11. The Hague Convention on the Taking of Evidence Abroad in Civil or commercial Matters (The Hague Evidence Convention) was done on:

a: March 18, 1970
b: March 18, 1975
c: March 18, 1988

12. The protocol for the suppression of unlawful acts of violence at Airports serving International Civil Aviation was done on:

a: February 24, 1988
b: February 24, 1978
c: February 24, 1968

13. The United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea was held at Geneva in:

a: 1958
b: 1959
c: 1960

14. The second session of the United Nations Committee on economics, social and cultural Rights was held at Geneva in:

a: February 1988
b: February 1987

15. The Convention for the protection of Ozone Layer was done on:

a: March 22, 1985
b: March 22, 1987
c: March 22, 1988

16. What do these acronyms stand for?

WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organization
GATT: General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
IBRD: International Bank of Reconstruction for Development
UNESCO: United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization 







Which one is correct :
A.
(i). International law imposees duty on states to recognise a state.
(ii). Recognition of state is a matter of legal duty.
(iii). The political indipendence of a state is indipedent of recognition.
(iv). The existence of a state depends on recognition .

B.
(i). A Costal state can exercise Jurisdiction on any crime on the board of a foreign vessel passing through the territorial sea.
(ii). A Costal state may arrest or divert a foreign vessel passing through its territory.
(iii). A Costal state can exercise jurisdiction on a foreign vessel if the consequences of the crime extend beyond the vessel.
(iv). A state has absolute jurisdiction over a foreign vessel in its territorial water.

C.
(i). Retorsion is a legal act.
(ii). Retorsion is legal act but delibeately unfriendly.
(iii). Retorsion is limited to retaliation.
(iv). Retorsion is a discourtious act.

D.
(i). A state has the legal right to go to water.
(ii). A state can wage war only in self-defence.
(iii). War in all circumstances is prohibited by International Law.
(iv). A State can go to war to redress the wrong done to its nationals .





Write short notes on the principles enshrined in the statement you feel is correct in each of the four sections A,B,C and D.

(A)
i. Exhaustion of local remedy is to exhaust remedies available to a national in his own country.
ii. Exhaustion of local remedy is to exhaust remedies available to an aline resident in the state of his temporary domicile.
iii. Exhaustion of local remedies is to exhaust remedies available to an individual in the international courts and tribunals.

(B).
i. Defacto recognition is extended where a government has not acquired sufficient stability.
ii. Defacto recognition is fullest form of recognition of a government established by Law.
iii. Defacto recognition is extended to International organisations.

(C).
i. Right of hot pursuit is available to a state's air force to pursue a foreign aircraft for violation of its air space.
ii. Right of hot pursuit is available to a state's armed forces to pursue violation of its territorial sovereignty by the nationals or armed forces of foreign powers.
iii.Right of hot pursuit is available to a costal state to pursue onto the high seas a foreign vessel for infractions of its laws and regulations.

(D).
i. Extradition means expulsion of an alien who fears persecution in his own country.
ii. Extradition means delivery of an accused or a convicted person to the state in which he committed the offence.
iii. Extradition means expulsion of an alien for the violation of the laws of the state of temporary domicile.




(1) Provisions of Municipal Law:-
(a) are enforceable in international relations without any qualification
(b) are enforceable in international -relations if they are not in conflict with international law;
(c) are not at all enforceable in international relations.

(2) Select one of the following: -
(a) Public International Organizations are subjects of International Law;
(b) both Public and Private International organizations are subjects of International Law
(c) None of the above is subject of International Law.


(3) Foreign diplomatic envoys enjoy absolute immunity from local jurisdiction in;
(a) Civil matters;
(b) Criminal matters;
(c) both civil and criminal matters.

(4) The Right of innocent passage is available to:
(a) Foreign Aircrafts;
(b) Foreign ships;
(c) all foreign vehicles.

(5) Non-permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are elected for a period’ of:
(a) five years;
(b) three years;
(c) two years.

(6) A successor state is legally bound to:
(a) fulfill all the obligations of its predecessor state;
(b) only selected obligations;
(c) No obligation at all..,

(7) A lower riparian state:
(a) Has no right to share water resources of an International River;
(b) Has exclusive right
(c) Has right to share water on an equitable basis.

(8) The Charter of the U.N. was drawn up by:-
(a) London Declaration 1943.;
(b) Moscow and Tehran Conference1943;
(c) San Francisco Conference 1945.

(9) Universal Declaration on Human Rights was adopted in:
(a) 1978
(b) 1958
(c) 1948

(10) The judges of the I.C.J. are elected by:
(a) the U.N. Security Council
(b) the U.N. General Assembly
(c) both

(11) Territorial Waters are:
(a) Waters within the territorial limits of a state;
(b) Waters dividing the territory of two or more states;
(c) None of the above.

(12) A state is admitted to the membership of the’ U.N. by:
(a) the Security Council;
(b) the General Assembly;
(c) Both

(13) Advisory opinion from the I.C.J. can be sought by:
(a) the U.N.
(ii) the States
(c) Both

(14) A state is exempted from the jurisdiction of the local courts in another state:
(a) if an agreement has been made to that effect;
(b) by virtue of its sovereign status;
(c) if such an exemption is granted by the local authorities.

(i5) The offence of piracy is subject to the jurisdiction of:
(a) the flag state;
(b) the offenders state
(c) all the states.

(16) A Continental Shelf is situated beneath the sea level at the approximate depth of:
(a) 200 meters
(b) 300 meters
(c) 500 meters

(17) Foreign sovereign ships sailing/anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are:
(a) subject to the law of the flag state;
(b) subject to the law of the coastal state;
(c) subject to the law of both states.

(18) In case an alien is injured in a foreign state, it is the right of the:
(a) injured alien to bring a claim against the wrongdoer state before arrival international forum;
(b) state of the nationality of the injured alien;
(c) none of the two has aright to do so.

(19) Extradition is the process of: -
(a) providing asylum to the person who needs it;
(b) handing over a person accused or convict of a crime by a state to the demanding state;
(c) None of the two.

(20) The Economic and Social Council is:
(a) a specialized agency of the U.N.
(b) an organ of the U.N.
(c) N.G.O. for the uplift of economic and social standards of the people of the world.




(1) Subject of International Law are:
(a) States
(b) Individuals
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(2) The General Assembly is:
(a) The Principle Organ of UNO
(b) An ordinary Organ of UNO
(c) A check on the Security Council
(d) None of these

(3) League of Nations was not joined by:
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) None of these

(4) Judges of the ICJ are:
(a) Elected by the Security Council
(b) Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
(c) Appointed by the Secretary General in consultation with the five permanent members of the Security Council.
(d) None of these

(5) Under the Convention of the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Territorial Sea is:
(a) 6 nautical miles
(b) 8 nautical miles
(c) 12 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(6) A state can use force:
(a) In its own defence
(b) By entering into a treaty with another state
(c) At its own discretion
(d) None of these

(7) Diplomatic relations are established by:
(a) Mutual agreement
(b) Unilateral action
(c) Decision of neighboring States
(d) None of these

(8) Rights of hand-locked states are governed by
(a) Rules of customary international law
(b) Convention on the Law of Sea
(c) Mutual Consent
(d) None of these

(9) Vienna Congress took place in:
(a) 1815
(b) 1919
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

(10) Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed in:
(a) 1966
(b) 1968
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(11) The United Nation is:
(a) A Supra-State organization
(b) A creation of Member States
(c) Has no link with States after its establishment
(d) None of these

(12) Territorial asylum is:
(a) An exercise of territorial sovereignty
(b) An impingement of territorial Sovereignty
(c) Granted by mutual consent
(d) None of these

(13) A state is
(a) Bound to recognize a new state
(b) Not bound to do so
(c) Requited to enter into dialog with the new state for recognition

(14) Minquires and Ecrehos case was decided by
(a) ICJ (1950)
(b) PCIJ
(c) Europe Court of Human Rights
(d) None of these

(15) The eruption of war termination:
(a) All treaties
(b) Only political treaties
(c) No treaty

(16) International Law can:
(a) Compel a state to settle a dispute
(b) Provide moral support to an issue in dispute
(c) Furnish legal substance to an issue in dispute
(d) None of these

(17) The concept of State immunity is:
(a) An attitude of territorial sovereignty
(b) A derogation-form the sovereignty of state
(c) Not concerned with territorial sovereignty
(d) None of these

(18) The Continuity of states us International Legal Persons is:
(a) Affected by change of government
(b) Not affected by change of government
(c) Depends of the recognition of new government
(d) None of these

(19) Harmon Doctrine is:
(a) Part of International Law
(b) Was renounced before it could take roots in International Law
(c) Is attempting to earn general acceptance
(d) None of these

(20) Vital change of circumstances
(a) Renders a treaty invalid
(b) Terminates the treaty
(c) Has no affect on the treaty
(d) None of these




(1) In Pakistan the limit of the territorial waters is:
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 36
(d) None of these

(2) A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:
(a) In all cases
(b) In criminal cases
(c) In cases involving personal property
(d) None of these

(3) Haronon Doctrine means
(a) A state cannot interfere in the internal affairs of other States
(b) A state is not bound to recognize a government installed by a foreign power
(c) A State has the right to use force for the protection of its nationals.
(d) None of these

(4) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
(a) 1917
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(5) Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and extending seawards to a time
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) None of these

(6)The width of the partition belt is generally recognized to be
(a) 3 miles
(b) 5 miles
(c) 10 miles
(d) None of these

(7) The Estrada Doctrine relates to:
(a) Delimitation of boundaries
(b) Recognition of a government
(c) Recognition of a State
(d) None of these

(8) The term of judges of the International Court of Justice is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 9 years
(d) None of these

(9) Extradition is normally granted:
(a) In all cases
(b) In criminal cases
(c) In civil cases
(d) None of these

(10) Foreign ships
(a) are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial Waters
(b) have the right of innocent passage in the Territorial Waters
(c) have the right of free passage in the Territorial Waters
(d) None of these

(11) A State has the right to use force for
(a) Obtaining raw materials
(b) Creating the protection of human rights
(c) Armed attack
(d) None of these

(12) International Court of Justice was established in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1952
(c) 1956
(d) None of these

(13) The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1961
(c) 1962
(d) None of these

(14) The father of International Law is considered to be:
(a) Saurez
(b) Oppeahoin
(c) Grotius
(d) None of these

(15) A State has complete immunity from the jurisdiction of foreign courts in:
(a) All cases
(b) Public acts
(c) Private cases
(d) None of these

(16) International Law Commission is a body to:
(a) Investigate situations which may threaten international peace and security
(b) Codify International Law
(c) Conciliate between the disputing States
(d) None of these

(17) The first case taken up by the International Court of Justice was:
(a) Asylum case
(b) Nationality decree in Tunis
(c) Corfu Channel
(d) None of these

(18) A state
(a) Cannot nationalize foreign property
(b) Can nationalize foreign property without compensation
(c) Can nationalize foreign property after paying compensation
(d) None of these

(19) Diplomatic Asylum means
(a) A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving State
(b) Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
(c) Asylum provided to a political leader by a foreign State
(d) None of these

(20) Minister Resident are
(a) Higher in rank than that of the Minister Plenipotentiary
(b) Lower in rank than that of the Minister Plenipotentiary
(c) Equal in rank to the Minister Plenipotentiary
(d) None of these




(1) A State has the right to exploit in the Continental Shelf:
(a) Living resources
(b) Non-living resources
(c) Both living and non-living resources
(d) None of these

(2) The principle of rebus sie steatibus means
(a) A state cannot use force
(b) There is no crime without a law
(c) Fundamental change of circumstances
(d) None of these

(3) The Schooner Exchange case dealt with the principle of
(a) A State has sovereign right over its neutral resources
(b) A State’s Courts have to accept the validity of a foreign State’s acts.
(c) A State’s right of reprisals in case of violation of rights
(d) None of these

(4) Hague Convention of 1970 dealt in properly with the crimes relating to:
(a) Refugees
(b) Prisoners of wars
(c) Hijacking
(d) None of these

(5) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(6) Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and extending seawards to a line:
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 60
(d) None of these

(7) De facto Recognition is
(a) Legal recognition
(b) Recognition in principle
(c) Circumstantial Recognition
(d) None of these

(8) The limit of the Territorial Waters of Pakistan is:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 24 nautical miles; beyond the land territory and internal waters of Pakistan measured from the base line
(d) None of these

(9) Continental Shelf of Pakistan may extend upto a distance of
(a) 150 nautical miles
(b) 200 nautical miles
(c) 250 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(10) Exclusive Economic Zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters the limit of which is
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 100 nautical miles
(c) 200 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(11) According to the “Floating island Theory”, a floating island is
(a) An island within 3 nautical miles from the coast of a country
(b) An island on the high seas which is not the territory of any particular State
(c) A ship bearing the national flag of a State
(d) None of these

(12) In procedural matters the decisions of the Security Council are made by an affirmative votes of any
(a) 5 members
(b) 9 members
(c) 15 members
(d) None of these

(13) Extradition is normally granted
(a) In all cases
(b) In civil cases
(c) In criminal cases
(d) None of these

(14) What is Contrabands?
(a) All narcotics
(b) Articles banned by a Government
(c) All smuggles goods
(d) Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war
(e) None of these

(15) A state has the right to use force in case of
(a) To obtain war material
(b) Armed attack
(c) To ensure the protection of human rights
(d) None of these

(16) Diplomatic Asylum means
(a) A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving State
(b) Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
(c) Asylum provided to a particular leader by a foreign State
(d) None of these

(17) The International Law Commission is a body to
(a) Investigate situation which may threats international peace and security
(b) Codify International Law
(c) Conciliate between/among the disputing States
(d) None of these

(18) The width of the maritime belt is generally recognize to be
(a) 3 miles
(b) 5 miles
(c) 10 miles
(d) None of these

(19) Foreign ships
(a) Are not allowed to navigate in the territorial waters
(b) Have the right of innocent passage in the territorial waters
(c) Have the right of free passage in the territorial waters
(d) None of these

(20) The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in
(a) 1945
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) None of these




(1) The term of judges of International Court of Justice is
(a) Three years
(b) Five years
(c) Six years
(d) Nine years
(e) None of these

(2) When was the Charter of Human Rights adopted?
(a) 1945
(b) 1948
(c) 1951
(d) None of these

(3) Tobar Doctrine is related to
(a) The recognition of a state
(b) The recognition of a government
(c) The recognition of insurgents
(d) None of these

(4) Conference of Bogota was held in
(a) 1920
(b) 1936
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(5) Vienna Conference of 1961 is related to
(a) Diplomatic inter course and immunities
(b) Prisoners-of-war
(c) Recognition of states
(d) None of these

(6) Who is called ‘the father of International Law’?
(a) Hago Grotius
(b) Oppenhein
(c) Suerez
(d) None of these

(7) Foreign warships have
(a) The right of free passage in the territorial waters
(b) The right of innocent passage in the territorial waters
(c) To stay in the territorial waters
(d) None of these

(8) A landlocked state is
(a) Surrounded by water from all sides
(b) Surrounded by enemy states from all sides
(c) Surrounded by land from all sides
(d) None of these

(9) Contiguous Zone is limited to a maximum of
(a) 25 miles (24 nautical mile )
(b) 50 miles
(c) 12 miles
(d) None of these

(10) The Alabama Claims Arbitration case was decided in
(a) 1872
(b) 1854
(c) 1890
(d) None of these

(11) The Convention for the protection of the Ozone Layer was done on
(a) March 22, 1985
(b) March 23, 1986
(c) March 24, 1987
(d) None of these

(12) Culvo Clause means
(a) A state can intervene on behalf of its nationals
(b) A state can’t intervene on behalf of its nationals
(c) An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own state
(d) None of these

(13) Diplomatic relations are established by
(a) Mutual consent
(b) A unilateral decision
(c) A decision of a regional organization
(d) None of these

(14) Eruption of war terminates
(a) All treaties
(b) No treaty
(c) Only political treaties
(d) None of these

(15) Foreign ships sailing and anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are
(a) Subject to the law of Flag State
(b) Subject to the law of Coastal State
(c) Subject to the law of both the States
(d) None of these

(16) Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the
(a) Flag State
(b) Offenders State
(c) All the States
(d) None of these

(17) Territorial Waters are
(a) Water outside the territorial limits of a state
(b) Waters dividing territory of Two or more states
(c) Waters Adjacent to the contiguous Zone
(d) None of these

(18) Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a period of
(a) 7 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 2 years
(d) None of these

(19) The Montreal Convention for the safety of Civil Aviation was signed in
(a) 1975
(b) 1974
(c) 1971
(d) None of these

(20) Diplomatic staff enjoys complete immunity from
(a) Civil Jurisdiction
(b) Criminal Jurisdiction
(c) Both
(d) None of these



(1) Number of Judges of International Court of Justice is
(a) Nine
(b) Twelve
(c) Fifteen
(d) None of these

(2) Permanent Court of International Justice was established under
(a) League of Nations
(b) UNO
(c) European Union
(d) None of these

(3) Pacta Sunt Servanda means
(a) Treaties between states are to be respected
(b) An unwanted person
(c) International Law must be honoured
(d) None of these

(4):Headquarters of International Court of Justice is in
(a) Hague
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) None of these

(5) Persona Non Gruta means
(a) Impracticable article of international law
(b) A fugitive criminal
(c) A person refused for asylum
(d) None of these

(6) Father of the Law of Nations is
(a) Grotius
(b) Hegel
(c) Anziloei
(d) None of these

(7) Principles Jes Soli means
(a) Grant of nationality on the basis of place birth
(b) Grant of nationality on the basis of blood relationship
(c) Grant of nationality through naturalization
(d) None of these

(8) Much of international law is derived through analogy from
(a) Islamic law
(b) Christian Law
(c) Roman law
(d) None of these

(9) Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in
(a) 1961
(b) 1945
(c) 1927
(d) None of these (1969)

(10) Truce mean
(a) A temporary arrangement between the belligerent parties for cessation of hostilities
(b) Any peace treaty to end a war
(c) No War Pact
(d) None of these

(11) Declaration is a treaty between the contracting parties which
(a) is always subject to ratification
(b) is not needed to be ratified
(c) may or not be subject to be ratification
(d) None of these

(12) Diplomatic Protection means a protection and security granted
(a) to a diplomat by UNO
(b) by a state to its national abroad
(c) by a State to a person seeking asylum
(d) None of these

(13) Kellog Briand Pact or Paris Peace Treaty was signed in
(a) 1945
(b) 1928
(c) 1919
(d) None of these

(14) Recognition of new States is a matter of
(a) International law
(b) Constitutional law
(c) Policy of the State
(d) None of these

(15) Grant of extra-territorial asylum in a legation:
(a) is a part of customary international law
(b) is a part of Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961
(c) depends on circumstances
(d) None of these

(16) To get asylum in a foreign state by an individual
(a) is his basic right
(b) is not his right
(c) depends on circumstances
(d) None of these

(17) Diplomatic envoys in the receiving state are given immunity from
(a) Civil jurisdiction
(b) Criminal jurisdiction
(c) Both criminal and civil jurisdiction
(d) None of these

(18) Territorial sea of a State is under
(a) its total control
(b) its control, but subject to certain international obligations
(c) its control, only for exploration of mineral resources
(d) None of these

(19) Genocide Convention was adopted by the UN General Assembly in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1950
(c) 1960
(d) None of these

(20) Bynkershock principle is related to:
(a) Measurement of maritime belt
(b) Contiguous zone
(c) Extradition of criminals
(d) None of these





(1) principal of “double criminality” means that:
(a) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states
(b) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states but may be punished in one
(c) that the offence for which a person is extradited must be an offence in both the states
(d) none of these

(2) principal of “specialty” means that:
(a) the person extradited must be awarded special punishment by the requesting state
(b) the person extradited must not be awarded special punishment by the requesting state
(c) the person extradited must be punished only for the offence for which he has been extradited
(d) none of these

(3) features of international law include all except which of the following:
(a) there is no single legislative source of international law
(b) there is no single world court for interpreting international law
(c) there is no world executive branch that can enforce international laws
(d) none of these

(4)which of the following is not a source of international law?
(a) treaties and conventions
(b) custom
(c) judicial decisions and teachings
(d) none of these

(5)the United Nations is governed by all except which of the following?
(a) the general assembly
(b) the security council
(c) the secretariat
(d) none of these

(6)the group of European countries created to promote peace, security, economic and social unity is called the:
(a) European market
(b) European union
(c) European coalition
(d) None of these

(7)GATT is a multilateral treaty that:
(a) restricts trade among non-member countries
(b) imposes multiple trade barriers among its member nations
(c) establishes trade agreements and limited tariffs and trade restrictions
(d) None of these

(8) the oldest principal of international law is the doctrine of:
(a) sovereign immunity
(b) foreign dignitaries
(c) religious freedom
(d) none of these

(9) diplomatic envoys are absolutely immuned from which of the following jurisdictions:
(a) criminal jurisdiction
(b) civil jurisdiction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(10) which of the following is not an example of Extra-Territorial Asylum:
(a) asylum granted in a ship in high seas
(b) asylum granted in the premises of an international institution
(c) asylum granted in an embassy
(d) none of these

(11) universal declaration of human rights was passed in:
(a) Chicago
(b) London
(c) Berlin
(d) None of these (Paris 1948)

(12) “Continental Shelf” means:
(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) submerged bed of sea contiguous to a continental land mass
(d) none of these

(13) Vatican city is:
(a) a province of Italy
(b) is an independent state
(c) is not an independent state
(d) none of these

(14) the jurisdiction of the international court of justice:
(a) is binding on all the members of the UNO
(b) is not binding on all the members of the UNO
(c) is binding only upon the members of the SECURITY COUNCIL
(d) none of these

(15) a “Vassal State” is the one which is:
(a) situated on the sea shore
(b) an independent state
(c) under the suzerainty of another state
(d) none of these

(16) Confederation means:
(a) good diplomatic relation between some states
(b) union between some states
(c) relation between the provinces of a federal state
(d) none of these

(17) “Littoral State” means:
(a) situated on the sea coast
(b) an independent state
(c) under the suzerainty of another state
(d) none of these

(18) “Contiguous Zone” means:
(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) that portion of sea which is adjacent to territorial waters
(d) none of these

(19) “Maritime Belt” means:
(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) that portion of sea which is adjacent to the territory of a coastal state
(d) none of these

(20) “ Economic and Social Council”
(a) was an organ of the League of Nations
(b) is an organ of the WTO
(c) is an organ of UNO
(d) none of these



1. A state has the right to exploit in the Continental Shelf:
(a) living resources
(b) non-living resources
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

2. The principle of rabus sie stantibus means:
(a) a state cannot use force
(b) there is no crime without a law
(c) fundamental change of circumstances
(d) none of these

3. The Schooner Exchange case dealth with the principle of:
(a) a state has soverign right its natural resources
(b) A state courts have to accept the validity of a foreign state's acts
(c) a state's right of reprisals in case of violation of rights
(d) none of these

4. Hague convention of 1970 dealt in properly with the crimes realting to:
(a) refugees
(b) prisoners of war
(c) hijacking
(d) none of these

5. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) none of these

6. Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and extending seawards to a line:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 24 nautical miles
(c) 60 nautical miles measured from the base-line
(d) none of these

7. De facto recognition is:
(a) legal recognition
(b) recognition in principle
(c) circumstantial recognition
(d) none of these

8. The limit of territorial waters of Pakistan is:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 24 nautical miles---beyond the land territory and internal waters of Pakistan, measired from the base-line
(d) none of these

9. Continental shelf of Pakistan may extend upto a distance of:
(a) 150 nautical miles
(b) 200 nautical miles
(c) 300 nautical miles----beyond the limits of its territorial waters
(d) none of these

10. Exclusive Economic Zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters, the limit of which is:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 100 nautical miles
(c) 200 nautical miles
(d) none of these

11.Select the correct one:
(a) only coastal states have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
(b) every state has the right to sail ships under its flag on the high seas
(c)only five big powers have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
(d) no state has the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas

12. Convention on the Law os the Sea was signed at Jamaica in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1975
(c) 1982
(d) none of these

13. Statutes of International Courts of Justice were drawn up by:
(a) London Declaration in 1941
(b) Moscow and Tehran Conference in 1943
(c) San Francisco Conference in 1945
(d) none of these

14. According to the "floating island" theory, a "floating island" is:
(a) an island within three nautical miles from the coastof a country
(b) an island on the high seas, which is not the territory of any particular state
(c) a ship bearing the national flag of a state
(d) none of these

15.The Security Council is:
(a) Specialized agency of the U.N
(b) Principle organ of the U.N
(c) N.G.O. for settling disputes between various states
(d) none of these

16. In procedural matters, the decisions of the Security Council are made by the affirmative votes of any:
(a) 5 members
(b) 9 members
(c) 15 members
(d) none of these

17. Extradition is normally granted:
(a) in all cases
(b) in criminal cases only
(c) in civil cases only
(d) none of these

18. What is CONTRABAND?
(a) all narcautics
(b) articles banned by a government
(c) all smuggled goods
(d) Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war

19. The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 9 years

20. A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:
(a) in all cases
(b) in criminal cases
(c) in cases involving personal property
(d) none of these

1. Diplomatic protection is the protection which a state gives to:
   
   (a) Its nations living abroad through its Embassies
   (b) All diplomatic envoy on its own territory
   (c) Its own diplomatic agents in the foreign states
   (d) None of These
2. Pacta Sunt Servanda means:
   (a) A diplomat not acceptable to the receiving state
   (b) Agreement between states are to be respected
   (c) A pact of ceasefire between the belligerent parties
   (d) None of These
3. Briand Kellog Pact was meant to:
   (a) End War between France and Britain
   (b) Establish peace in western Europe
   (c) Denounce war as an instrument for settling disputes.
   (d) None of These
4. Treaty of Westphalia was signed in:
   
   (a) 1658
   (b) 1680
   (c) 1776
   (d) None of These(1648)
5. Permanent Court of International Justice was established in:
   
   (a) 1919
   (b) 1922
   (c) 1915
   (d) None of These
6. Srilankan High Commissioner in Islamabad, if found involved in a serious crime in Pakistan, can be
   
   (a) Arrested by local police and put to trial
   (b) Arrested and handed over to his home govt
   (c) Asked to leave the country by the local authorities
   (d) None of These
7. The Law of War and Peace was writtern by:
   
   (a) Hegel
   (b) Kelsen
   (c) Grotius
   (d) None of These
8. Permanent Cout of Arbitration was an outcome of:
   
   (a) League of Nations
   (b) UNO
   (c) Hague Conference 1907
   (d) None of These
9. Albama claims Arbitration Award 1872 established certain principles of:
   
   (a) Nationality
   (b) Neutrality
   (c) Extradition
   (d) None of These
10. The leader of positive school of thought was:
    
    (a) Bynkershok
    (b) Stark
    (c) Extradition
    (d) None of These
11. Contraband means:
    
    (a) Things usable in war by one party against the other
    (b) No war pact between the states parties
    (c) Pact between the parties to stop the war temporarily
    (d) None of These
12. In the continental Shelf the coastal has:
    
    (a) The exclusive right over all resources
    (b) The exclusive right over its living resources only
    (c) Has The exclusive right over its non living resources
    (d) None of These
13. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in:
    
    (a) 1961
    (b) 1969
    (c) 1975
    (d) None of These
14. Territorial sea of a coastal state is:
    
    (a) open for innocent passage of all type of foreign ships
    (b) open for innocent passage of all except the fishing ships
    (c) Reserved for vessels of the coastal states only
    (d) None of These
15. Cabotage is:
    
    (a) Part of the Sea prohibited for war activity by law
    (b) No fly zone , determined by UN during war
    (c) Intercourse by sea between two ports of the same state
    (d) None of These
16. Principle of Jus Soli is:
    
    (a) Granting nationality on the basis of place of birth
    (b) Granting nationality on the basis of parentage
    (c) invalidation of a treaty due to change in circumstances
    (d) None of These
17. UN Declaration of Human Rights was passed in:
    
    (a) 1945
    (b) 1948 (December)
    (c) 1949
    (d) None of These
18. Re Meunier and Re Castioni cases are test cases for:
    
    (a) Extradition of military offenders
    (b) Extradition of political offenders
    (c) Determining the enemy Status of aliens during war
    (d) None of These
19. All international Treaties signed by the Us president are subject to ratification by the Us:
    
    (a) Senate with 2/3 majority
    (b) House of Representatives with 2/3 majority
    (c) Congress with 2/3 majority
    (d) None of These
20. Prize courts are:
    
    (a) International Courts
    (b) Municipal courts
    (c) judicial tribunals under UNO
    (d) None of These

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box in the answer sheet.

1. One of the modes of acquiring state territory is:
(a) Jurisdicition
(b) occupation
(c) insurjency (d)
Non of these

2. The name of the present secretary general of the UN is:
(a) Kofi Anaan
(b) Boutros gali
(c) Ban ke Mon (d)
Non of these

3. The preamble to the universal declariation on human rights was adopted on:
(a) 12 jan 1949
(b) 10 Dec 1948
(c) 6th Aug 1947
(d) Non of these

4. The right of innocent passage means:
(a) right of a foreign merchant ship to pass un-hindered through the territorial sea of the cost
(b) Not to publicize dangers to navigation in the sea
(c) To over look regulations of marri-time traffic
(d) Non of these

5. The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined in the:
(a) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva connvention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) Non of these

6. With drawal of recognition is more easily achieved with respect to:
(a) Defact recognition
(b) Collective Recognition
(c) Implied Recognition
(d) Non of these

7. The father of International Law is:
(a) David Dudley field
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Geremy bentham
(d) Non of these

8. Internal waters of a state are, such waters which are:
(a) found on the land-ward side of base line from which the territorial sea is measured.
(b) Adjusant to the exculsive fisheries zone.
(c) waters flowing into the high sea's
(d) Non of these

9. The doctrine of open sea was eloborated by:
(a) Blunt schilli
(b) Pufendorf
(c) Grotius
(d) Non of these

10. According to article 3 of the 1982 convention on the law of the sea the breadth of the territorial sea is:
(a) 10 miles
(b) 12 miles
(c) 14 miles
(d) Non of these

11. The term Men of War signifies:
(a) Military personal
(b) A warship
(c) An aircraft carrier
(d) Non of these

12. The number of judges constituting the international court of justice are:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Non of these

13. Terra Nullius means:
(a) Island in the sea
(b) No territory
(c) Territory belonging to no state
(d) Non of these

14. The Acroniyum WMD stands for:
(a) Western missile defense
(b) Weapons of mass distruction(c) World metrological Department
(d) Non of these

15. Hot persuit is the principle designed to ensure:
(a) Vessiles voilating rules of coastal state cannot escape punishment by fleeing to high sea's
(b) Capture
(c) Cancellation of Registration
(d) Non of these

16. Piracy, according to law of sea convention 1982 is:
(a) An illegal act by crew of private ship on the high sea's.
(b) An act of sabotage
(c) Act permisible in certain cases
(d) Non of these

17. The general assembly of the UN is :
(a) The most powerful organ
(b) A supervisory body
(c) An elected House
(d) Non of these

18. The charter of the UN is a comprehensive document having:
(a) 112 articles
(b) 111 articles
(c) 108 articles
(d) Non of these

19. One of the amicable means of settling state disputes is:
(a) Concillation
(b) Blockade
(c) War
(d) Non of these

20. The bulk of the rules of International law are derived from:
(a) Judicial decisions
(b) work of publicites
(c) Customs
(d) Non of these




1) Consuls, in receiving state are considered representative of:
(a) Head of State
(b) The government
(c) Foreign Office
(d) None of these

2) International law is not a true law but a positive international morality:
(a) Brierly
(b) Oppenheim
(c) John Austin
(d) None of these

3) Who is known as father of International law?
(a) Jessup
(b) Grotious
(c) Hegal
(d) None of these

4) Albama claim arbritation determines the principles of:
(a) Extradition
(b) Nationality
(c) Neutrality
(d) None of these

5) Decision of arbritation is:
(a) Binding on parties
(b) Not binding
(c) Partially binding
(d) None of these

6) Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965 was a:
(a) Non-war Armed conflict
(b) War
(c) Just border conflict
(d) None of these

7) Nationality of a women as a result of marriage with a foreigner is:
(a) Lost
(b) Changed
(c) Nothing is done
(d) None of these

8) Tashkent declaration between india and pakistan in 1966 by USSR was a:
(a) Conciliation
(b) Mediation
(c) Arbitration
(d) None of these

9) Geneva convention for POWs was signed in:
(a) 1949 (Also called 3rd Geneva)
(b) 1952
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

10) Armed attack on enemy fall under:
(a) Retortion
(b) Reprisal
(c) Intervention
(d) None of these

11) Briand-Kellog pact was signed in Paris in:
(a) 1923
(b) 1928(27 August 1928)
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

12) Universal declaration of Human rights was passed by:
(a) Geneva Convention
(b) Vienna Congress
(c) UN General Assembly in 1948
(d) None of these

13) Truce is:
(a) Agreement of ceasefire
(b) Peace treaty
(c) Agreement of exhange of Prisoners of War
(d) None of these

14) Concept of state will was first time given by:
(a) Hegel
(b) Grotious
(c) Bynkershoek
(d) None of these

15) If a pakistani citizen is involved in counterfeiting US currency, US can claim jurisdiction over him on the basis of principle of:
(a) Subjective Territoriality
(b) Objective Territoriality
(c) Exta Territoriality
(d) None of these

16) Charge' d Affairs, appointed in a foreign state has to report to:
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) Foreign Office
(d) None of these

17) Charter of international crimincal court was adopted in:
(a) Rome conference 1998
(b) Geneva Convention
(c) General Assembly
(d) None of these

18) Genocide Convention 1951 protects the:
(a) smaller minority groups
(b) Prisoners of war
(c) Non-combatants
(d) None of these

19) Extradition means:
(a) Capurting a criminal
(b) Exchange of Diplomats
(c) Exchange of criminals to other states
(d) None of these

20) International court of justice can exercise its jurisdiction on:
(a) All disputes between states
(b) With concent of any one party
(c) With concent of all parties
(d) None of these

ss


Q.1. Select the best option /Answer and fill on the appropriate box on the answer Sheet.
(i) Pakistan became the member of UNO in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d ) None of these



(ii) Articles of UN charter are:
(a) 115
(b) 111
(c) 120
(d) None of these



(iii) Which article of the statute of ICJ deals with the sources of international law?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 38
(d) None of these



(iv) Secretary General of UNO is from?
(a) Russia
(b) Holland
(c) South Korea
(d) None of these



(V) Total members of UNO are:
(a) 180
(b) 192
(c) 150
(d) None of these



(vi) The Headquarter of International court of Justice is at:
(a) Geneva
(b) Hague
(c) New York
(d) None of these


(vii) Which article of the 1982 Convention on the Law of the Sea deals with the breadth of territorial sea?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) None of these



(viii) Who is called the father of the law of nations
(a) Jeremy Bentham
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these


(ix) The security Council takes enforcement measures with respect to threats to the peace under chapter:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) None of these


(x) Locarno Pact (1925) concluded between:
(a) UK, France , Germany ,Belgium and Italy
(b) Russia , USA, China , Canada and Brazil
(c) Australia, Newzeland, Portugal, Argentina and Peru
(d) None of these


(xi) De Jure Belli Ac Pacis (The Law of War and Peace) was written by:
(a) Vattel
(b) Bynkershoek
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these


(xii) The Nuremberg Trial were held at:
(a) Holland
(b) USSR
(c) Germany
(d) None of these


(xiii) Territorial Waters and Maritime Zones Act ,1976 of Pakistan contains articles:
(a) 20
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) None of these

(xiv) "International law is not true law but a positive international Morality" , said

(a) John Auston
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these


(xv) The term International Law was first coined by:
(a) Hugo Grotius
(b) Jeremy Bentham
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these


(xvi) One of the Presidents of USA is called the father of the League of nations:
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Wilson
(d) None of these


(xvii) Extradition means:
(a) Handing over a diplomat to other state
(b) Handing over a spy to other state
(c) Handing over a criminal to other state
(d) None of these


(xviii) Persona non grata means;
(a) Ungrateful Diplomat
(b) Inefficient Diplomat
(c) Undesirable Diplomat
(d) None of these


(xix) One of the forcible means of settling of states disputes is :
(a) Conciliation
(b) Retorsion
(c) Arbitration
(d) None of these

(xx) International Law Commission was established by the General Assembly in pursuance of which article pf UN Charter?
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) None of these

Every Day Science Paper - 1991
Partial Solution



9. (a) Write response on the following:

(i) The method by which men provides for his everyday needs and desires is called (Technology, Engineering, Versatility)

(ii) Of all the flying machines, man has made only (Balloon Jet Air Craft, Rockets) are suitable for space flight.

(iii) Transistors do not need a warm up period because they have no (Plate, Grid, Filament)

(iv) If an object gives off its own light, it is said to be (transparent, illuminated,luminous)

(v) An electric heater would be most likely to produce (X-rays, Ultra Violet, I R Radiations)


(b) Fill in the blanks:


(i) If the mass/volume ratio of a box containing stones is equal to the mass volume ratio of a box containing feather than the box containing stones has smaller volume of material in it.

(ii) In any one kind of atom, the number of proton, electrons is the same, it is the number of neutrons which may change from atom to atom of the same element.

(iii) The Kelvin scale of temperature is called the absolute scale.

(iv) The type of radiation hat is unaffected by magnetic field is called alpha.

(v) If we know the mass of an object and the force applied on it, it is possible to calculate acceleration of the object.


11. Match the following pairs from list I & list II

List I………….......……List II

Kidney…………........…Frog
Proteins………........…Antibody
Photosynthesis….....Hepatitis
Heredity……….......…Bleeding disease
Neuron…….........……Heart
Hemophilia…….........Nerve cell
Pace Maker….......…Chromosomes
Virus…………............Plant
Antigen……......….….Amino acid
Amphibian…….......…Nephron

Answers:

List I…………….... ..…List II

Kidney…………....… .Nephron
Proteins………….... .Amino acid
Photosynthesis.… .Plant
Heredity…………... .Chromosomes
Hemophilia………... .Bleeding disease
Neuron…………...… .Nerve cell
Pace Maker…..…. .Heart
Virus……………....… Hepatitis
Antigen…………... …Antibody
Amphibian……….. ..Frog


14. (a) Name the organs responsible for the following functions present in either elements, plants or human.

a) Vision
b) Reproduction
c) Hormone secretion
d) Blood pumping
e) Food storage

Answers:

a) Eye
b) Gonades
c) Glands
d) Heart
e) Stem and stomach


(b) Fill in the blanks:

(i) Active transport in animals and plants required metabolic energy and concentration gradient to carry the substances across cell membranes electrical gradient.

(ii) Diseases that spread through air are called air born disease.

(iii) Large trees give off aerial roots for the support of their heavy spreading branches.

(iv) When iron is less in body the quantity of hemoglobin in cell decreases.

(v) Arteries become hard due to deposition of fats in them.


Every Day Science Paper - 1992
Partial Solution




4. Attempt any five of the following

(a) The solar system has:

(i) 9 planets
(ii) 12 planets
(iii) 16 planets

Ans. Now there are 8 major and several dwarf planets.


(b) The science of study of old age is called:

(i) Gerontology
(ii) Carcinology
(iii) Nephrology

Ans. (i) Gerontology


(c) The instrument used for measuring the velocity of air:

(i) Barometer
(ii) Anemometer
(iii) Potometer

Ans. (ii) Anemometer


(d) The science which deals with the bird is called:

(i) Entomology
(ii) Ornithology
(iii) Herpetology

Ans. (ii) Ornithology


(e) The function of the thermostat in a refrigerator is:

(i) To increase the freezing point
(ii) To Lower the temperature
(iii) To maintain the temperature

Ans. (iii) To maintain the temperature


(f) Blotting paper absorbs ink because:

(i) It has a chemical affinity for ink
(ii) The action of capillary
(iii) The force of gravitation acts between blotting paper and ink.

Ans. (ii) The action of capillary


(g) Mirage is an example of:

(i) Reflection of light
(ii) Refraction and internal reflection of light
(iii) Polarization of light

Ans. (i) Reflection of light



6. Where are the following animals found? Answer any five.

a) Kangaroo
b) Kiwi
c) Llama
d) Ibex
e) Panda
f) Snow Leopard
g) Penguin

Answer:

a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) South America
d) Himalaya, Abyssinia
e) North India
f) Central Asian Mountains
g) Cooler waters and along the coastlines in Southern Hemisphere


7. Name the sources of any five of the following biological products.

a) Musk
b) Codeine
c) Cocaine
d) Quinine
e) Colchicines
f) Digilain

Answer:

a) Abdominal gland of male musk deer
b) From opium
c) Cocaine
d) Bark of cinchona
e) From colchicum
f) Leaves from the purple foxglove; a plant


9. Differentiate between any five of the following:

a) DNA and RNA
b) Alloy and Amalgam
c) Blood and Lymph
d) Stars and Planets
e) Gas and Vapour
f) Brass and Bronze


Answers:

a) DNA & RNA

RNA:

It is single stranded molecule
Contains Ribose sugar
contains adanine, guanine ,cytosine, & uracil bases
generally located in cytoplasm
is of three kinds

DNA:

Double stranded
deoxyribose
contains adanine, guanine cytosine and thymine bases
is of one kind


b) Alloy and Amalgam:

Alloy:

Substance composed of two or more metals. Alloys, like pure metals, possess metallic luster and conduct heat and electricity well, although not generally as well as do the pure metals of which they are formed. Compounds that contain both a metal or metals and certain nonmetals, particularly those containing carbon, are also called alloys. The most important of these is steel. Simple carbon steels consist of about 0.5 percent manganese and up to 0.8 percent carbon, with the remaining material being iron.

Amalgam:

Amalgam is an alloy of mercury with one or more metals.


d) Stars and Planets:

Stars:

Heavenly bodies that shine by its own light and remains relatively fixed in position among the other bodies in the universe.light and energy is generated in a star by the conversion of hydrogen into helium.

Planet:

Opaque bodies revolving around the sun in its own orbit & also rotating on its own axis, shines by reflection of the light of other stars( such as sun).


e) Gas and Vapour:

The terms vapor and gas can be used interchangeably, although in practice, vapor is used for a substance that is normally in liquid or solid state, such as water, benzene, and iodine. It has been proposed that the use of the term vapor be restricted to a gaseous substance below its critical point; the temperature at which it may be liquefied by the application of sufficient pressure) and the term gas should be used above the critical temperature when the existence of the substance in the liquid or solid state is impossible. This usage is essentially arbitrary because all gaseous substances follow a similar behavior both above and below the critical point.


f) Brass and Bronze:

Brass: an alloy of copper and zinc
Bronze: an alloy of copper and tin


13. Name two diseases caused by following groups of micro-organisms.

a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Fungi

Answers:

a) Tuberculosis, Typhoid, Cholera
b) Poliomyelitis, Influenza
c) Sleeping sickness, Amoebic dysentery
d) Ringworm, Actinomycosis

Every Day Science Paper - 1993
Partial Solution



1. Which of the following statements are false and which are true.

a) Urea is a phosphorous fertilizer
False

b) Ibn Baitar was a renowned Muslim Botanist
True

c) Penicillin was discovered by Edward Jenner
False

d) Cellulose is a natural polymer
True

e) Vitamin A and D are water soluble.
False

f) Amoeba is a unicellular animal
True

g) Solar eclipse occurs in full moon
False

h) Water is a bad conductor of electricity
False

i) Leprosy is a disorder of the nervous system
False

j) Chlorofluorocarbons cause decomposition of ozone
True


4. Fill in the blanks with correct choice.

1. Quartz is chemically a silicate.

2. Chicken egg is composed of one cell.

3. Visible light energy has the wavelength range of 400 to 700.

4. The particles with positive charge but having mass equal to that of electron is called proton.

5. Gas in children’s play-balloons going upward is Helium.

6. Standard pressure is 760 mm.

7. Iron corrodes due to the formation of Iron Oxide.


8. Explain in detail what is a balanced diet; name a nutrient present in each of the following food:

1. Apple
2. Bread
3. Meat
4. Butter
5. Orange
6. Egg
7. Milk
8. Spinach

Answers:

1. Vitamin C
2. Starch
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin A
5. Vitamin C
6. Vitamin D
7. Vitamin A, C, D
8. Vitamin K


12. Name the instruments used for measuring each of the following:

(i) Pressure
(ii) Voltage
(iii) Purity of milk
(iv) Temperature
(v) Velocity of wind

Answers:

(i). Barometer
(ii). Voltmeter
(iii). Lactometer
(iv). Thermometer
(v). Anemometer


15. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Starch is a polymer of glucose.

(ii) A big astronomical observatory known as the Royal Greenwich, London was established during the reign of Caliph Mamoon.

(iii) Adrenalin is secreted by the Adrenal gland.

(iv) Mars planet is nearest to the earth.

(v) CFC is the abbreviation of Chlorofluorocarbon.

(vi) The process of conversion of a material from solid state directly to gaseous state is called sublimation.

(vii) A junction diode is formed by PWP semiconductor pieces whereas junction transistor is a sandwich made up of PNP transistor.

Every Day Science Paper - 1994
Partial Solution




1. Which of the following statements are true and which are false:

a) Bacteria are parasites
True

b) Ruby is an Oxide of Aluminum
True

c) In the Australian continent, days are longer than nights in June.
False

d) Gypsum is hydrated calcium carbonate chemically.
False

e) Twenty-three moons revolve around Saturn
False

f) Pluto is the coldest planet
True – provided that if we consider it a planet.

g) Chromite ore contains chromium oxide.
True

h) Mica is a nonconductor of electricity.
True

i) Sun is the biggest star in the universe.
False

j) The earth completes one rotation about its axis in 365.25 days.
False


4. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The capacity to do work is called energy.

(ii) The energy possessed by a body due to its position is called potential energy.

(iii) Kitab al-Manazir is a publication by a famous Muslim scientist about optics.

(iv) Nucleus usually lies in the centre of an animal cell.

(v) Calcium and phosphorus are the essential elements of bones.

(vi) Proteins are formed by combination of amino acids.

(vii) Rainwater dissolves sulphur dioxide to form sulphuric acid.

(viii) The set of instructions given to a computer is called command.
(ix) Chemicals such as penicillin which act on bacteria are called antibiotics.

(x) Comet Shoemaker Levy 9 hit the planet Mars in July this year (collision took place in July 1994)


7. Give brief answers for any five of the following:

(i) Name the two proteins found in milk.

Ans. albumin, globulin and casein


(ii) What organ of human body controls the amount of water and salt in blood?
Ans. kidneys

(iii) Drugs are classified into five major groups. Define any two.

Antibiotics
Antiparasitic
Antiviral
Antiprotozoal
Hormonal

(iv) How do chromosomes in a male and female differ in a human body.

Male XY
Female XX

(v) Which two gases do you exhale more than you inhale?
Ans. Carbon dioxide and oxygen

(vi) Name any two glands which secretes hormones in human body
Ans. Thyroid and Pituitary , Pancreas


9. Differentiate between any five of the following pairs.

(i) Veins and arteries:

Veins: carry deoxygenated blood to heart from body parts
and arteries carry oxygenated blood from body parts to heart.
Veins are thin and less elastic than arteries.

(ii) PNP and NPN transistor:

PNP transistors is the one in which one N, type semiconductor is sandwiched in between two P type or accepter diodes while NPN transistor is the one in which two N type semiconductors are fitted on the both sides of p-type semiconductor to allow to pass current from them.

(iii) Electronic current and static electricity:

Electricity occurs in two forms: static electricity and electric current. Static electricity consists of electric charges that stay in one place. An electric current is a flow of electric charges between objects or locations:

(iv) Concave and convex lens:

A convex lens curves outward; it has a thick center and thinner edges. Light passing through a convex lens is bent inward, or made to converge;

Concave lens: A diverging, or concave, lens is curved inward, with a thin center and thicker edges. Light passing through a concave lens bends outward, or diverges

(v) Fats and oils:

Fats are soft and greasy at ordinary temperatures, whereas fixed oils—as distinct from essential oils and petroleum—are liquid.

(vi) Absorption and adsorption:

Adsorption : the adhesion of a thin layer of molecules of some substance to the surface of a solid or liquid.

Absorption: the ability of a substance to absorb light, noise, or energy, or the fact that it does so


13. Which part of a plant do they belong to?

(i) Ginger
(ii) Raddish
(iii) Potato
(iv) Cinnamon
(v) Peanut
(vi) Saffron
(vii) Almond
(viii) Chillies
(ix) Spinach
(x) Tomato

Answers:

(i) Ginger........................Underground Stem
(ii) Raddish.....................Edible Root
(iii) Potato..................... Under ground Stem (tuber)
(iv) Cinnamon.................Bark of stem
(v) Peanut.....................Underground Seed/Fruit
(vi) Saffron...................Stigma of Flower
(vii) Almond...................Fruit
(viii) Chillies....................Edible pod with seeds/Fruit
(ix) Spinach...................Leaves
(x) Tomato ...................Fruit


15. Fill in the blanks.

(i) In a heat engine, heat energy is changed into _________ (mechanical energy, magnetic energy, light energy)

(ii) Frequency of audible sound in Hertz (Hz) is _________ (20 – 20,000Hz, 20,000 – 30,000Hz, 30,000 – 4,000Hz)

(iii) Deficiency of vitamin B causes _________ (rickets, beriberi, night blindness)

(iv) Cheapest source of producing electricity is _________ (coal, natural gas, water)

(v) The smallest unit of measurement of wavelength is _________ (micrometer, angstrom, nanometer)

(vi) The chemical generally used in refrigerators is _________ (ethylene glycol,freon, methyl alcohol)

(vii) The unit of ‘TON’ to specify air conditioners is equal to _________ (10,000 BTU/hour, 12,000 BTU/hour, 16,000 BTU/hour)

(viii) Unit of electricity ‘KILOWATT HOUR’ is the unit of (force, work, power)

(ix) Period of famous Muslim scientists is _________ (3rd – 5th century, 6th – 7th century, 7th – 13th century A.D.)

(x) Heat radiation travels at a speed equal to _________ (half the speed of light, speed of light, speed of wind)



Every Day Science Paper - 1995
Partial Solution



1. Which of the following statements are true and which are false.


a) Cryptograms are non-flowering plants.
False

b) Reserve food material is usually stored as glycogen in plants.
False

c) Streptococcus is a gram negative bacteria
False

d) Spinach is a good source of vitamin K.
True

e) Insulin is a hormone secreted by the spleen.
False

f) Femur is a bone of the forearm.
False

g) The moon has no atmosphere.
True

h) Excessive burning of fossil fuels cause acid rain.
True

i) Twenty-first of June is the longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere.
True

j) Electricity is a secondary source of energy.
True


2. Define any FIVE of the following scientific terms:

a) Doping
b) Immunization
c) Pasteurization
d) Modulation
e) Catabolism
f) Reprocessing of reactor fuel

Answers:

a) Doping: is adding impurities to semiconductor materials in order to change their electrical characteristics.


b) Immunization: Also called vaccination or inoculation, a method of stimulating resistance in the human body to specific diseases using microorganisms—bacteria or viruses—that have been modified or killed. These treated microorganisms do not cause the disease, but rather trigger the body's immune system to build a defense mechanism that continuously guards against the disease. If a person immunized against a particular disease later comes into contact with the disease-causing agent, the immune system is immediately able to respond defensively.


c) Pasteurization: Pasteurization, process of heating a liquid, particularly milk, to a temperature between 55° and 70° C (131° and 158° F), to destroy harmful bacteria without materially changing the composition, flavor, or nutritive value of the liquid. The process is named after the French chemist Louis Pasteur, who devised it in 1865 to inhibit fermentation of wine and milk. Milk is pasteurized by heating at a temperature of 63° C (145° F) for 30 minutes, rapidly cooling it, and then storing it at a temperature below 10° C (50° F).

d) Modulation: change sound: to change the tone, pitch, or volume of sound, e.g. of a musical instrument or the human voice


e) Catabolism: constructive metabolism, is the process of synthesis required for the growth of new cells and the maintenance of all tissues. Catabolism, or destructive metabolism, is a continuous process concerned with the production of the energy required for all external and internal physical activity. Catabolism also involves the maintenance of body temperature and the degradation of complex chemical units into simpler substances that can be removed as waste products from the body through the kidneys, intestines, lungs, and skin.

f) Reprocessing of reactor fuel:

The spent fuel still contains almost all the original uranium-238, about one-third of the uranium-235, and some of the plutonium-239 produced in the reactor. In cases where the spent fuel is sent to permanent storage, none of this potential energy content is used. In cases where the fuel is reprocessed, the uranium is recycled through the diffusion plant, and the recovered plutonium-239 may be used in place of some uranium-235 in new fuel elements.


3. What do you understand by the term “deforestation”? Discuss its ill-effects on the mankind.

Deforestation: is a large-scale removal of forest prior to its replacement by other land uses. Forests are removed for a variety of reasons, including agriculture, timber harvesting, and mining, and to make way for roads, dams, and human settlements.

Deforestation poses a severe worldwide environmental problem. Forests take enormous amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere in the process of photosynthesis. The destruction of forests exacerbates the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which then contributes to global warming. In addition, deforestation causes soil erosion and destabilizes watersheds, resulting in flooding or drought.

Deforestation also reduces biodiversity, particularly significant in tropical forests that are home to a substantial portion of the world’s plant and animal species. Deforestation processes are, in general, more destructive in the tropics. Most forest soils in the tropics are far less fertile than temperate soils, and more vulnerable to erosion. This is due to high rainfall, which leaches nutrients from the soil and speeds erosion.


4. Fill in the blanks.

a) The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter.

b) The outermost layer of the earth is called crust.

c) Newton is the unit of force.
d) Radium was discovered by Madam Curie.

e) The memory of the computer is expressed in bytes.

f) Quartz is a crystalline form of silicon dioxide.

g) AIDS is caused by Human Immune Deficiency Virus (HIV).

h) Chemical name of gypsum is Calcium Sulfate.

i) Molten super hot material present inside a volcano is called magma.

j) Richter scale measures the severity of earth quake.


6. Write short notes (not more than 150 words) on any two of the following.

a) Semi-conductors
b) Pesticides
c) Laser.

Answers:

a) Semi-conductors:

Semiconductor, solid or liquid material, able to conduct electricity at room temperature more readily than an insulator, but less easily than a metal.

Such metals as copper, silver, and aluminum are excellent conductors, but such insulators as diamond and glass are very poor conductors .At low temperatures, pure semiconductors behave like insulators. Under higher temperatures or light or with the addition of impurities, however, the conductivity of semiconductors can be increased dramatically, reaching levels that may approach those of metals.


b) Pesticides: a chemical substance used to kill pests, especially insects. The chemical agents called pesticides include herbicides (for weed control), insecticides, and fungicides.


c) Laser: a device that produces and amplifies light. The word laser is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Laser light is very pure in color, can be extremely intense, and can be directed with great accuracy. Lasers are used in many modern technological devices including bar code readers, compact disc (CD) players, and laser printers. Lasers can generate light beyond the range visible to the human eye, from the infrared through the X-ray range. Masers are similar devices that produce and amplify microwaves.


10. Classify the following animals are reptiles, mammals, birds and fish.

Answers:

a) Blue whale----Mammals
b) Cobra--------Reptile
c) Panda--------Mammal
d) Ostrich-------Bird
e) Penguin------Bird
f) Kiwi----------Bird
g) Shark--------Fish
h) Alligator -----Reptile
i) Dolphin-------Mammal
j) Tortoise------Reptile


12. Differentiate between the following.

a) Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
b) Epidemic and endemic
c) Herbivores and carnivores
d) Photosynthesis and respiration
e) Pollination and fertilization

Answers:

a) Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia:

Hypoglycemia:the medical condition of having an unusually low level of sugar in the blood

Hyperglycemia: the medical condition of having an unusually high level of sugar in the blood

b) Epidemic and Endemic

Epidemic: outbreak of contagious disease affecting an unusually large number of people or involving an extensive geographical area.

Endemic:a disease that usually occurrs within a particular area or locality some time in a year.


c) Herbivores and carnivores

Herbivore, animal that eats only plant material. Herbivores are primary consumers in the food web.

Carnivore, general term for any animal that subsists mainly on the flesh of other animals


d) Photosynthesis and respiration:

Photosynthesis: process by which green plants and certain other organisms use the energy of light to convert carbon dioxide and water into the simple sugar glucose.An extremely important byproduct of photosynthesis is oxygen, on which most organisms depend.

Respiration: Here we take oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide where as in plants in day time co2 is taken and o2 is given off.


e) Pollination and fertilization:

Pollination: transfer of pollen grains from the male structure of a plant to the female structure of a plant. The pollen grains contain cells that will develop into male sex cells, or sperm. The female structure of a plant contains the female sex cells, or eggs. Pollination prepares the plant for fertilization, the union of the male and female sex cells. Virtually all grains, fruits, vegetables, wildflowers, and trees must be pollinated and fertilized to produce seed or fruit, and pollination is vital for the production of critically important agricultural crops, including corn, wheat, rice, apples, oranges, tomatoes, and squash.

Fertilization: the process in which gametes—a male's sperm and a female's egg or ovum—fuse together, producing a single cell that develops into an adult organism. Fertilization occurs in both plants and animals that reproduce sexually—that is, when a male and a female are needed to produce an offspring.


14. Fill in the blanks with the correct choice.

a) pH of blood is (3.4-4.4, 7.3-7.4, 9.3-9.4)

b) One of the countries through which equator passes is (Kenya, Pakistan, Malaysia)

c) Purest form of iron is (pig iron, wrought iron, cast iron)

d) Hypo is a solution of (sodium chloride, silver nitrate, sodium thiosulphate)

e) Cod liver oil contains (Vitamin K, Vitamin E, Vitamin D)

f) Aorta is an organ of the (nervous system, circulatory system, digestive system)

g) Planet Mars has (one, two, four) moons.

h) Bauxite is an ore of (boron, aluminum, magnesium).

i) Circular aperture which appears as a dark spot in the eye is called (iris, pupil, lens)

j) The most distant planet in the solar system is (mars, Pluto, Jupiter)


15. Match the scientists and their discoveries/inventions given in column (a) and (b):

....A….................…B

Einstein…........…Neutron
Roentgen…........Laws of heredity
Charles Darwin….X-Rays
Chadwick……...…Theory of evolution
Mendel…….........Mass energy conversion equation

Answers:

....A…................…..B

Einstein…..........Mass energy conversion equation
Roentgen........…X-rays
Charles Darwin...Theory of evolution
Chadwick……......Neutron
Mendel…...........Laws of hereditary

Every Day Science Paper - 1996
Partial Solution




1. Which of the following statements are true.

a) Jbir Ibne Hayyan was the author book Kitab Al- Manazir.
False

b) Abyl Qasim Al-Zahravi was a famous Muslim mathematician.
False

c) The speed of light is nearly 300,000 km/sec.
True

d) Ideally water can e used as a car fuel after electrolysis.
True

e) A machine helps us do more work with less force.
True

f) Our eye is very sensitive to blue light.
False

g) We can receive TV sound signal on our FM radio sets.
True

h) Sound can travel through vacuum.
False

i) Famous Muslim botanist Ibn Al Baitar lived during the period 700-90 A.D.
False

j) A ceramic engine would have greater efficiency.
True


2. Fill in the blanks with the correct choice.

a) Al Beruni died in 1048 A.D. (848, 1048, 1248)

b) Abu Ali Sina was born in Turkey. (Iraq, Turkey, Spain)

c) Blue colour has shortest wavelength. (blue, yellow, green)

d) Copper metal has the highest electrical conductivity. (silver, tungsten, copper)

e) light travels fastest in vacuum. (glass, vacuum, plastics)

f) Our solar system has about fifty satellites. (thirty-five, fifty, ninety-six)

g) The universe is expanding. (contracting, expanding, stationary)

h) The disease, haemophiia is caused by the deficiency of vitamin K (A, K, D)

i) Protein is a natural polymer. (glucose, protein, polyethylene)

j) Astronomers cannot be nominated for the Nobel Prize. (physicists, economists, astronomers)


3. Define any five of the following terms.

a) Biogas
b) Geothermal energy
c) Vaccine
d) Antibiotic
e) Ceramics
f) Light year

Answers:

a) Biogas:

Biogas is the result of the controlled microbial breakdown of organic materials such as animal manures or food scraps in an anaerobic digester.Biogas is a mixture of about 60-70% methane (natural gas), 30-40% carbon dioxide and other trace gases, such as hydrogen sulfide.

b) Geothermal energy:

The word geothermal comes from the Greek words geo (earth) and therme (heat). So, geothermal energy is heat from within the earth. We can use the steam and hot water produced inside the earth to heat buildings or generate electricity. Geothermal energy is a renewable energy source because the water is replenished by rainfall and the heat is continuously produced inside the earth.

c) Vaccine:

Vaccine is an immunogen consisting of a suspension of weakened or dead pathogenic cells injected in order to stimulate the production of antibodies.

d) Antibiotic:

Chemical substance formed as a metabolic by-product in bacteria or fungi and used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics can be produced naturally, using microorganisms, or synthetically.

e) Ceramics:

Ceramics are classified as inorganic and nonmetallic materials that are essential to our daily lifestyle. This category of materials includes things like tile, bricks, plates, glass, and toilets.Ceramics are generally made by taking mixtures of clay, earthen elements, powders, and water and shaping them into desired forms. Once the ceramic has been shaped, it is fired in a high temperature oven known as a kiln. Often, ceramics are covered in decorative, waterproof, paint-like substances known as glazes.

f) Light year:

A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the distance that light can travel in one year. Light moves at a velocity of about 300,000 (km) each second. So in one year, it can travel about 10 trillion km. More precisely, one light-year is equal to 9,500,000,000,000 kilometers.


5. What are Endocrine Glands? Name any two. From which part of the body are the following secreted:

a) Insulin
b) Thyroxin
c) Adrenaline
d) Oestrogen
e) Testosterone
f) Cortisol

Answers:

“These are those glands which pour their secretions directly into the blood stream”. Their secretions are called as “Hormones” which are the chemical substances produced by the cells of one part and transported by the body fluids to another site of body where they exert their action. They serve as chemical messengers or regulators.

They control growth, metabolism, reproduction and many other functions of body and mind. E.g. Pituitary Gland, Thyroid Gland etc.

The following hormones are secreted by:

Name of Hormone………..Gland secreting Hormone

a) Insulin…….............…Pancreas
b) Thyroxin……............Thyroid
c) Adrenaline…............Adrenal Medulla
d) Oestrogen…..........…Ovaries
e) Testosterone…........Testes
f) Cortisol………............Adrenal Cortex


8. What do the following scientific abbreviations stand for?


a) LPG Liquefied Petroleum Gas

b) TNT Tri niotro toline

c ) RNA Ribonucleic Acid

d) CNG Compressed Natural Gas

e) ATP Adenosine tri Phosphate

f) RBC Red Blood Cells

g) ECG Electro Cardio Gram

h) PVC Poly Vinyl Chloride

i) RAM Random Access Memory

j) CFC Chlorofluorocarbons


9. Write short notes on any two of the following:

a) Acid rain
b) Green house effect
c) Ozone depletion

Answers:

a) Acid rain:

The problem begins with the production of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from the burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, natural gas, and oil, and from certain kinds of manufacturing. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water and other chemicals in the air to form sulfuric acid, nitric acid, and other pollutants. These acid pollutants reach high into the atmosphere, travel with the wind for hundreds of miles, and eventually return to the ground by way of rain, snow, or fog, and as invisible “dry” forms.

Acid rain leaches nutrients from soils, slows the growth of trees, and makes lakes uninhabitable for fish and other wildlife. In cities, acid pollutants corrode almost everything they touch, accelerating natural wear and tear on structures such as buildings and statues. Acids combine with other chemicals to form urban smog, which attacks the lungs, causing illness and premature deaths


b) Green house effect:

Greenhouse Effect, the capacity of certain gases in the atmosphere to trap heat emitted from Earth’s surface, thereby insulating and warming the planet. Without the thermal blanketing of the natural greenhouse effect, Earth’s climate would be about 33°C (about 59°F) cooler—too cold for most living organisms to survive.

The greenhouse effect results from the interaction between sunlight and the layer of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere that extends up to 100 km (60 mi) above Earth’s surface. Sunlight is composed of a range of radiant energies known as the solar spectrum, which includes visible light, infrared light, gamma rays, X rays, and ultraviolet light. When the Sun’s radiation reaches Earth’s atmosphere, some 25 percent of the energy is reflected back into space by clouds and other atmospheric particles. About 20 percent is absorbed in the atmosphere. For instance, gas molecules in the uppermost layers of the atmosphere absorb the Sun’s gamma rays and X rays. The Sun’s ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer, located 19 to 48 km (12 to 30 mi) above Earth’s surface.

About 50 percent of the Sun’s energy, largely in the form of visible light, passes through the atmosphere to reach Earth’s surface. Soils, plants, and oceans on Earth’s surface absorb about 85 percent of this heat energy, while the rest is reflected back into the atmosphere—most effectively by reflective surfaces such as snow, ice, and sandy deserts. In addition, some of the Sun’s radiation that is absorbed by Earth’s surface becomes heat energy in the form of long-wave infrared radiation, and this energy is released back into the atmosphere.

Certain gases in the atmosphere, including water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide, absorb this infrared radiant heat, temporarily preventing it from dispersing into space. As these atmospheric gases warm, they in turn emit infrared radiation in all directions. Some of this heat returns back to Earth to further warm the surface in what is known as the greenhouse effect, and some of this heat is eventually released to space. This heat transfer creates equilibrium between the total amount of heat that reaches Earth from the Sun and the amount of heat that Earth radiates out into space. This equilibrium or energy balance—the exchange of energy between Earth’s surface, atmosphere, and space—is important to maintain a climate that can support a wide variety of life.

The heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere behave like the glass of a greenhouse. They let much of the Sun’s rays in, but keep most of that heat from directly escaping. Because of this, they are called greenhouse gases. Without these gases, heat energy absorbed and reflected from Earth’s surface would easily radiate back out to space, leaving the planet with an inhospitable temperature close to –19°C (2°F), instead of the present average surface temperature of 15°C (59°F).


c) Ozone depletion:

Ozone Layer, a region of the atmosphere from 19 to 48 km (12 to 30 mi) above Earth's surface. Ozone concentrations of up to 10 parts per million occur in the ozone layer. The ozone forms there by the action of sunlight on oxygen. This action has been taking place for many millions of years, but naturally occurring nitrogen compounds in the atmosphere apparently have kept the ozone concentration at a fairly stable level.

The ozone layer of the atmosphere protects life on Earth by absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. If all the ultraviolet radiation given off by the Sun were allowed to reach the surface of Earth, most of the life on Earth’s surface would probably be destroyed. Short wavelengths of ultraviolet radiation, such as UV-A, B, and C, are damaging to the cell structure of living organisms. Fortunately, the ozone layer absorbs almost all of the short-wavelength ultraviolet radiation and much of the long-wavelength ultraviolet radiation given off by the Sun.

In the 1970s scientists became concerned when they discovered that chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons, or CFCs (see Fluorine)—long used as refrigerants and as aerosol spray propellants—posed a possible threat to the ozone layer. Released into the atmosphere, these chlorine-containing chemicals rise into the upper stratosphere and are broken down by sunlight, whereupon the chlorine reacts with and destroys ozone molecules—up to 100,000 per CFC molecule. The use of CFCs in aerosols has been banned in the United States and elsewhere. Other chemicals, such as bromine halocarbons, as well as nitrous oxides from fertilizers, may also attack the ozone layer. Thinning of the ozone layer is predicted to cause increases in skin cancer and cataracts, damage to certain crops and to plankton and the marine food web, and an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide (Global Warming) due to the decrease in plants and plankton.


10. What are the three components of the CPU in a computer? What is the function of each?

Answer:

Abbreviation for central processing unit, and pronounced as separate letters. The CPU is the brains of the computer. Sometimes referred to simply as the central processor,but more commonly called processor, the CPU is where most calculations take place. In terms of computing power, the CPU is the most important element of a computer system.

it has 3 parts

1)Memory unit: It stores vital information.such as computer language codes.It has 2 parts.

a)Ramdom access memory
b)read only memory

2)The arithmetic logic unit (ALU), which performs arithmetic and logical operations.

3)The control unit (CU), which extracts instructions from memory and decodes and executes them, calling on the ALU when necessary.


12. Briefly describe the principle and function of a camera. Mention its essential parts along with brief comparison with an eye.

Answer:

The most important tool of photography is the camera itself. Basically, a camera is a lighttight box with a lens on one side and light-sensitive film on the other.

Parts:

1.camera box
2.film
3.aperture or diaphragm and shutter
4.the lense
5.the viewing system

Cameras may work with the light of the visible spectrum or with other portions of the electromagnetic spectrum. A camera generally consists of an enclosed hollow with an opening (aperture) at one end for light to enter, and a recording or viewing surface for capturing the light at the other end. A majority of cameras have a lens positioned in front of the camera's opening to gather the incoming light and focus all or part of the image on the recording surface. The diameter of the aperture is often controlled by a diaphragm mechanism, but some cameras have a fixed-size aperture.


Refraction is the phenomenon which makes image formation possible by the eye as well as by cameras and other systems of lenses.
Human eyes have often been compared to cameras. They are alike in terms of structure, but they have one fundamental difference in functioning mechanism.

Table: Similarities & the Difference between Camera and Human Eye

Function Camera Human Eye


Similarities:

1. opening for light to enter aperture in Camera and pupil in eye.
2. control the amount of light entering camera/eye.
diaphragm control size of aperture in camera and iris muscles control size of pupil in eye.
3. refract light glass biconvex lens in Camera .And mainly cornea ; lens, aqueous & vitreous humor in eye.
4. object of light action to form image photosensitive chemicals on film in camera and photoreceptors(rods & cones) in retina of eye.
5. absorb excessive light to prevent multiple images formation dark internal surface in camera and pigmented, dark choroid in eye.

Difference:

1. focusing mechanism change distance between lens & film in camera and change focal length of lens using ciliary muscles in eye.



14. Differentiate between any five of the following:

a) Thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics
b) Lunar eclipse and solar eclipse
c) Asteroid and meteorite
d) Renewable and non-renewable energy resources
e) Endothermic and exothermic reactions
f) Star and planet
g) Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion

Answers:

a) Thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics:

Thermoplastics:

Thermoplastics can be repeatedly softened by heating and hardened by cooling.Thermoplastic molecules, which are linear or slightly branched, do not chemically bond with each other when heated. Instead, thermoplastic chains are held together by weak van der Waal forces (weak attractions between the molecules) that cause the long molecular chains to clump together like piles of entangled spaghetti. Thermoplastics can be heated and cooled, and consequently softened and hardened, repeatedly, like candle wax. For this reason, thermoplastics can be remolded and reused almost indefinitely.
in few words you can say:

1.Thermoplastics can be repeatedly softened by heating and hardened by cooling.
2.Thermoplastic molecules do not chemically bond with each other when heated.
3.examples are Polystyrene and polyethylene .

Thermosetting Plastics:

Thermosetting plastics, on the other hand, harden permanently after being heated once.Thermosetting plastics consist of chain molecules that chemically bond, or cross-link, with each other when heated. When thermosetting plastics cross-link, the molecules create a permanent, three-dimensional network that can be considered one giant molecule. Once cured, thermosetting plastics cannot be remelted, in the same way that cured concrete cannot be reset. Consequently, thermosetting plastics are often used to make heat-resistant products, because these plastics can be heated to temperatures of 260° C (500° F) without melting.

In few words we can say:

1. Harden permanently after being heated once.
2. Molecules that chemically bond when heated.
3. Examples are polyurethane and phenolic.



b) Lunar eclipse and solar eclipse:

A lunar eclipse occurs when Earth is between the Sun and the Moon, and Earth’s shadow darkens the Moon. A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon is between the Sun and Earth, and the Sun’s shadow moves across the face of Earth. An eclipse is called a total eclipse if the light is completely blocked or a partial eclipse if the light is only partly blocked.


c) Asteroid and meteorite:

Asteroid, small rocky or metallic body that orbits the Sun. Hundreds of thousands of asteroids exist in the solar system. Asteroids range in size from a few meters to over 500 km (300 mi) wide. They are generally irregular in shape and often have surfaces covered with craters

Meteorite, meteor that reaches the surface of Earth or of another planet before it is entirely consumed by heat and friction from the atmosphere. Meteors and meteorites originate as meteoroids in space. On Earth most meteoroids burn up as meteors before they can become meteorites. Meteoroids also strike bodies in space that lack atmospheres, such as the Moon and asteroids, becoming meteorites without being meteors.

Meteor, bright streak of light caused when a small solid body from outer space known as a meteoroid enters the atmosphere of Earth or another planet and is heated by friction from rapid motion through the air. The outer surface of the meteoroid melts and forms an envelope of extremely hot gas and air that radiates light. The meteoroid may burn up almost completely and fall as dust, or it may fragment or explode in midair. Remains of meteoroids that reach the surface are called meteorites.


d) Renewable and non-renewable energy resources:

Renewable energy resources:

Generally a form or forms of energy that are not based on fossil fuels but are renewable sources.they are mostly environmental friendly. Examples, Geothermal Energy; Solar Energy; Tidal Energy; and Wind Energy.

Non-renewable energy resources:

Generally a form or forms of energy that are based on fossil fuels .they are not environmental friendly.
examples, natural gas, oil, wood.patrol etc.


e) Endothermic and exothermic reactions:

Chemical reactions can occur spontaneously if the reactants possess more potential energy (stored energy) than the products. This type of reaction occurs spontaneously because of the downhill energy path (from more potential energy to less). These reactions are called exothermic (heat-producing) reactions, because potential energy is converted to heat as the reactions proceed. Conversely, endothermic (heat-absorbing) reactions do not occur spontaneously because of the uphill energy path that exists. The products of endothermic reactions contain more potential energy than the reactants. As a result, energy must be added to trigger an endothermic reaction.


f) Star and planet:

it will be discussed in 2008 papers.

g) Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion:

it will be discussed in 2008 papers.


15. Fill in the blanks:

a)Enzymes are biological catalysts which have multiple function in the body.

b) The difference between electrical charges at the two ends of a conductor is called potential difference.

c) The branch of zoology which deals with the study of insects is called entomology.

d) Electric current is measured by an ammeter.

e) Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide.

f) Fuels formed from animal and plant matter that lived thousands of years ago are known as fossil fuels.

g) Light with larger wavelength than that of the red colour is called infra red.

h) Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming.

i) Medulla Oblongata connects the small brain with the spinal chord.

j) The pH of normal human blood is 7.45-7.35.


Every Day Science Paper - 1997
Partial Solution



Note: Attempt TEN questions. All questions carry equal marks. Draw diagrams where necessary. Negative marking would be done for incorrect answers in Question Nos. 13 and 14.

1. Discuss the role and achievements of Muslim physicists during the 10th century.

2. Explain the structure of Earth and its atmosphere.

3. Write short notes on any two of the following:

(i) Solar eclipse
(ii) Thermoplastics
(iii) Non-renewable energy resources.

4. What are pesticides? Discuss their classification, commonly in use with agronomists.


5. What is the difference between.

(i) BIT and BYTE
(ii) RAM and ROM
(iii) C.U. and A.L.U
(iv) Hardware and Software
(v) Personal computer and mainframe

Answers:

(i) BIT and BYTE:

BIT:

Short for binary digit, the smallest unit of information on a machine. A single bit can hold only one of two values: 0 or 1. More meaningful information is obtained by combining consecutive bits into larger units. For example, a byte is composed of 8 consecutive bits.

BYTE:

Abbreviation for binary term, a unit of storage capable of holding a single character. On almost all modern computers, a byte is equal to 8 bits. Large amounts of memory are indicated in terms of kilobytes (1,024 bytes), megabytes (1,048,576 bytes), and gigabytes (1,073,741,824 bytes).


(ii) RAM and ROM:

RAM:

Pronounced ramm, acronym for random access memory, a type of computer memory that can be accessed randomly; that is, any byte of memory can be accessed without touching the preceding bytes. RAM is the most common type of memory found in computers and other devices, such as printers.

ROM:

Pronounced rahm, acronym for read-only memory, computer memory on which data has been prerecorded. Once data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be removed and can only be read.

Unlike main memory (RAM), ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. ROM is referred to as being nonvolatile, whereas RAM is volatile.

Most personal computers contain a small amount of ROM that stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer. In addition, ROMs are used extensively in calculators and peripheral devices such as laser printers, whose fonts are often stored in ROMs.

In common usage, the term RAM is synonymous with main memory, the memory available to programs. For example, a computer with 8MB RAM has approximately 8 million bytes of memory that programs can use. In contrast, ROM (read-only memory) refers to special memory used to store programs that boot the computer and perform diagnostics. Most personal computers have a small amount of ROM (a few thousand bytes). In fact, both types of memory (ROM and RAM) allow random access. To be precise, therefore, RAM should be referred to as read/write RAM and ROM as read-only RAM.


(iii) C.U. and A.L.U:

CU:

Short for control unit, it is a typical component of the CPU that implements the microprocessor instruction set. It extracts instructions from memory and decodes and executes them, and sends the necessary signals to the ALU to perform the operation needed. Control Units are either hardwired (instruction register is hardwired to rest of the microprocessor) or micro-programmed.

ALU:

Abbreviation of arithmetic logic unit, the part of a computer that performs all arithmetic computations, such as addition and multiplication, and all comparison operations. The ALU is one component of the CPU (central processing unit).


(iv) Hardware and Software:

Hardware:

Refers to objects that you can actually touch, like disks, disk drives, display screens, keyboards, printers, boards, and chips. In contrast, software is untouchable. Software exists as ideas, concepts, and symbols, but it has no substance.

Books provide a useful analogy. The pages and the ink are the hardware, while the words, sentences, paragraphs, and the overall meaning are the software. A computer without software is like a book full of blank pages -- you need software to make the computer useful just as you need words to make a book meaningful.

Software:

Computer instructions or data. Anything that can be stored electronically is software. The storage devices and display devices are hardware.

The terms software and hardware are used as both nouns and adjectives. For example, you can say: "The problem lies in the software," meaning that there is a problem with the program or data, not with the computer itself. You can also say: "It's a software problem."


(v) Personal computer and mainframe:

Personal Computer (PC):

Short for personal computer or IBM PC. The first personal computer produced by IBM was called the PC, and increasingly the term PC came to mean IBM or IBM-compatible personal computers, to the exclusion of other types of personal computers, such as Macintoshes.

In recent years, the term PC has become more and more difficult to pin down. In general, though, it applies to any personal computer based on an Intel microprocessor, or on an Intel-compatible microprocessor. For nearly every other component, including the operating system, there are several options, all of which fall under the rubric of PC .

Mainframe Computer:

A very large and expensive computer capable of supporting hundreds, or even thousands, of users simultaneously. In the hierarchy that starts with a simple microprocessor (in watches, for example) at the bottom and moves to supercomputers at the top, mainframes are just below supercomputers. In some ways, mainframes are more powerful than supercomputers because they support more simultaneous programs. But supercomputers can execute a single program faster than a mainframe. The distinction between small mainframes and minicomputers is vague, depending really on how the manufacturer wants to market its machines.


6. Explain any five of the following terms (in not more than four lines each):

(i) Osmosis Glycolysis
(ii) Phototaxis
(iii) Transpiration
(iv) Saponification
(v) Emulsion

Answers:

(i) Osmosis:

osmosis, in botany and chemistry, the flow of one constituent of a solution through a membrane while the other constituents are blocked and unable to pass through the (selecyively permeable membrane)membrane. experimentation is necessary to determine which membranes permit selective flow, or osmosis, because not all membranes act in this way. many membranes allow all or none of the constituents of a solution to pass through; only a few allow a selective flow.


Glycolysis:

Glycolysis, chemical process in which glucose is broken down, or catabolized, into the simpler sugar lactic acid, and energy is released.


(ii) Phototaxis:

movement of organism caused by light: movement of an organism either toward or away from a source of light . Phototaxis is called positive if the movement is in the direction of light and negative if the direction is opposite.


(iii) Transpiration:

Transpiration, evaporation of water particles from plant surfaces, especially from the surface openings, or stomata, on leaves . Stomatal transpiration accounts for most of the water loss by a plant, but some direct evaporation also takes place through the surfaces of the epidermal cells of the leaves.


(iv) Saponification:

Saponification is the hydrolysis of an ester under basic conditions to form an alcohol and the salt of a carboxylic acid (carboxylates). Saponification is commonly used to refer to the reaction of a metallic alkali (base) with a fat or oil to form soap. Saponifiable substances are those that can be converted into soap.

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a caustic base. If NaOH is used a hard soap is formed, whereas when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used, a soft soap is formed. Vegetable oils and animal fats are fatty esters in the form of triglycerides. The alkali breaks the ester bond and releases the fatty acid salt and glycerol. If necessary, soaps may be precipitated by salting it out with saturated sodium chloride. The saponification value is the amount of base required to saponify a fat sample.



(v) Emulsion:

A suspension of small globules of one liquid in a second liquid with which the first will not mix: an emulsion of oil in vinegar


7. Fill in the blanks:

(i) A sheet of muscles called diaphragm separates the chest from the abdomen.

(ii) In the human body, blood-clotting factor is produced by the liver.

(iii) Human blood is able to carry large amounts of oxygen because of the chemical hemoglobin.

(iv) The living part of a plant cell is composed of a nucleus and cytoplasm.

(v) The pattern for building protein molecules is stored in the messenger RNA.

(vi) Anvil and stirrup are names of bones present in the ear.

(vii) The front of the eye is covered with a tough transparent material called cornea.

(viii) The young plant inside a grain of wheat is called the embryo plant.

(ix) In born behaviour that involve only one part of the body are called reflex action.

(x) The smallest branches of an artery lead into tiny blood vessels called capillaries.


8. What are Exocrine glands? Give names of any four along with the name of their secretion.

Answer:

Glands are of two principal types:

(1) those of internal secretion, called endocrine, and
(2) those of external secretion, called exocrine.

Some glands such as the pancreas produce both internal and external secretions. Because endocrine glands produce and release hormones directly into the bloodstream without passing through a canal, they are called ductless. For the functions and diseases of endocrine glands, see Endocrine System.

Sweat gland..............Sweat
Sebaceous gland........Sebum
Lacrimal gland ...........Tears
Salivary gland.............Saliva


9. Which quantity do the following units measure:

(i) Volt
(ii) Coulomb
(iii) Walt
(iv) Ohm
(v) Mho
(vi) Ampere
(vii) Dyne
(viii) Celsius
(ix) Joule
(x) Calorie

Answers:

(i) Voltage
(ii) Charge of Electricity
(iii) Power
(iv) Resistance
(v) Conductivity
(vi) Current
(vii) Force
(viii) Temperature
(ix) Energy
(x) Heat


10. Give scientific reasons (in not more than four lines each) for the following:

(i) Meat takes longer to cook on the mountains
(ii) Water remains cool in earthen pitchers
(iii) Ice and salt mixture is used as a freezing agent by manual ice cream makers.
(iv) It is not advisable to sleep under trees during the night.
(v) Greenhouse operators paint their glass roofs white in summer.

Answers:

(i) Meat takes longer to cook on the mountains:

The atmospheric pressure decreases as the altitude increases. The boiling point of water is 100 c at standard atmospheric pressure. At the mountains this atmospheric pressure is less, thus water boils at temperature lower than 100c.Therefore the meat takes longer time to be cooked. This can be overcome by using pressure cookers.


(ii) Water remains cool in earthen pitchers:

The water gets evaporated through the pores of earthen pot and in so doing takes more heat from the water in the form of latent heat and gets cooled in turn. While a metal or glass container has no pores and therefore does not permit the evaporation of water which does not get so cooled.


(iii) Ice and salt mixture is used as a freezing agent by manual ice cream makers.

Salt lowers down the temperature of ice by decreasing its freezing point. That is why ice and salt mixture is used as freezing agent in ice cream making.


(iv) It is not advisable to sleep under trees during the night.

Because plants at night releases carbon dioxide and takes up oxygen.


(v) Greenhouse operators paint their glass roofs white in summer.

In summer there is already much hot and white colour has a property of reflection of light to a maximum. And therefore white colour is painted on the roofs in the summer.


11. Which part/organ of the human body do the following belong:

(i) Eustachian tube
(ii) Cartilage
(iii) Auricle
(iv) Tendon
(v) Dendrites

Answers:

(i) Eustachian tube...... Ear
(ii) Cartilage............... Connective tissue
(iii) Auricle................. Ear
(iv) Tendon ................Muscle
(v) Dendrites.............. Neuron


12.Briefly describe the solar system. Name its members outlines the main characteristics of any two members.


13. Fill in the blanks.

(i) Insulin is produced in the human body by the ___________. (Liver, Pancreas, Gallbladder)

(ii) In an animal cell protein is synthesized in the ___________. (Nucleus, Mitochondria, Ribosome)

(iii) Chemically finger nails are made up of ___________. (Carbohydrate, Protein, Minerals)

(iv) Muscle stiffness is a symptom caused by the disease ___________ (Polio, Tetanus, Rabies)

(v) Animals which obtain their food from dead organisms are called ___________. (Carnivores, Scavengers, Saprophytes)

(vi) ___________ is not affected by cooking. (Ascorbic acid, Thiamin, Riboflavin)

(vii) Rickets is caused by the deficiency of vitamin ___________. (A, D, K)

(viii) The number of chromosomes in the spermatozoa is ___________ (Twenty-two,twenty-three, Forty-six)

(ix) The fat in our food is digested by the enzymes ___________. (lipase, lactase, trypsin)

(x) The most abundant element in the human body is ___________. (Carbon, Hydrogen,Oxygen)


14. Which of the following statements are false and which are true.

(i) Sound is a form of energy.
True

(ii) A fraction of sunlight is refracted as it enters the earth’s atmosphere.
True

(iii) The energy possessed by a water fall is kinetic energy.
False

(iv) Rainbows are produced by the reflection of light through raindrops.
False

(v) Light switches in our homes are connected in parallel series.
True

(vi) Generators convert mechanical energy into electricity.
True

(vii) Modern incandescent bulbs contain filaments made of copper.
False

(viii) A steam engine cannot be powered by fossil fuels.
False

(ix) Nuclear energy is a cheap source of abundant electricity.
True

(x) Oil burns cleaner and is less damaging to the environment than coal as a fuel.
True


15. Match words of List A with those of List B.

...A.....................B

Protein.....................Fat
Magnesium................Milk
Carotene..................Ozone
Bauxite....................Nitrogen
Haemitite.................Amino acid
Casein.....................Vitamin A
Pancreas.................Aluminium
Quartz....................Chlorophyll
Chlorofluorocarbon....Iron
Urea......................Silicon

Answers:

...A..............................B

Protein.....................Amino acid
Magnesium................Chlorophyll
Carotene..................Vitamin A
Bauxite....................Aluminium
Haemitite.................Iron
Casein.....................Milk
Pancreas.................FATS
Quartz....................Silicon
Chlorofluorocarbon....Ozone
Urea.......................Nitrogen



Note: Attempt TEN questions. All questions carry equal marks.

1. “Earthquakes have helped a great deal in deciphering the internal structure of the earth”. Comment on this statement.

2. Discuss briefly the achievements of Muslims in the development of science. State the reasons of downfall of science in Muslim Society.

3. Discuss in detail the fission and fusion processes. Which one of thee processes in the source of solar energy?

4. Give a detailed description of global warming and its possible effects on life. What measures have been taken by various nations to tackle this problem?

5. Give chemical name of one Nitrogenous and one Phosphorus containing fertilizer. What is the role of Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Potash in the growth and development of various parts of a plant.

6. Write short notes on the following:

(i) Conductor
(ii) Resistor
(iii) Semi-conductor
(iv) Thermistor
(v) Transistor

7. Write short notes on five of the following:

(i) Antibody
(ii) Blood group
(iii) Carbon cycle
(iv) Nitrogen cycle
(v) Scavenger
(vi) Reaction time
(vii) Photosynthesis
(viii) Starfish

8.Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Trout is a sea fish.
False

(ii) Epiphytes is a plant that grows upon another plant.
True

(iii) Hepatitis is inflammation of membranes surrounding the brain.
False

(iv) Meningitis is the inflammation of liver.
False

(v) Equinox is the time when the sun appears vertically overhead at noon at the equator.
True

(vi) Drought is a long period of rain.
False

(vii) Joseph Aspdin is the inventor of cement.
True

(viii) Neurology is the science of nervous system.
True

(ix) Biochemistry is the application of statistics in the study of Biology.
True

(x) Aviculture is the science of the rearing of animals.
False


9. Name the quantities which are measured by the following units.

(i) Newton
(ii) Joule
(iii) Watt
(iv) Volt
(v) Light year
(vi) Angstrom
(vii) Acre-foot
(viii) Becquerel
(ix) Hertz
(x) Cusec

Answers:

(i) Force
(ii) Work Energy
(iii) Power of electricity
(iv) Potential difference
(v) Distance of stars and planets
(vi) Length
(vii) Volume
(viii) Radioactivity
(ix) Frequency
(x) Rate of flow of water


10. Match the cause of the disease:

Disease-----Cause

Rickets-----Plasmodium
Goiter------Protein deficiency
Typhoid----Iodine deficiency in diet
Merismis--- Salmonella typhosa
Malaria---- Deficiency of vitamin D

Answers:

Disease-----Cause

Rickets -------Deficiency of vitamin D
Plasmodium ---Malaria
Goiter---------Iodine deficiency
Typhoid------ Salmonella typhosa
Merismis ------Protein deficiency


11. What is the function of each of the following in a motor car:

(i) Gear box
(ii) Battery
(iii) Carburetor
(iv) Dynamo
(v) Radiator

12. Explain the following:

(i) Blood group
(ii) Short circuit
(iii) Short sight
(iv) International date line
(v) Plaster of Paris

Answers:

(i) Blood group

A blood type (also called a blood group) is a classification of blood based on the presence or absence of inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs). These antigens may be proteins, carbohydrates, glycoproteins or glycolipids, depending on the blood group system, and some of these antigens are also present on the surface of other types of cells of various tissues. Several of these red blood cell surface antigens, that stem from one allele (or very closely linked genes), collectively form a blood group system.


(ii) Short circuit:

1) An electrical circuit of lower than usual resistance, especially one formed unintentionally.

2) A short circuit (sometimes abbreviated to short or s/c) allows a charge to flow along a different path from the one intended. The electrical opposite of a short circuit is an open circuit, which is infinite resistance between two nodes. It is common to misuse "short circuit" to describe any electrical malfunction, regardless of the actual problem.


(iii) Short sight:

the inability to see things clearly unless they are relatively close to the eyes; myopia.

Detail:

Short-sightedness, is a refractive defect of the eye in which collimated light produces image focus in front of the retina when accommodation is relaxed.

Those with myopia see nearby objects clearly but distant objects appear blurred. With myopia, the eyeball is too long, or the cornea is too steep, so images are focused in the vitreous inside the eye rather than on the retina at the back of the eye. The opposite defect of myopia is hyperopia or "farsightedness" or "long-sightedness" — this is where the cornea is too flat or the eye is too short.

(iv) International date line:

Longitude line located at 180 degrees, longitude line that divides time zones so that one side is one one calendar day and the other side is on the next calendar day

(v) Plaster of Paris:

Plaster of Paris, or simply plaster, is a type of building material based on calcium sulfate hemihydrate, nominally CaSO4•0.5H2O. It is created by heating gypsum to about 150 °C.

13. Answer the following:

(i) Of what lead pencils are made of?
(ii) Why is one’s breath visible in cold but not in hot weather?
(iii) What is the chemical composition of diamond?
(iv) Name the vaccine that protects against tuberculosis.
(v) Name the disease of the liver that causes a patient to turn yellow.

14. Fill in the blanks.

(i) Black hole is a hypothetical region of space having a gravitational pull so great that no matter or radiation can escape from it.

(ii) Fungicides are used against mould and fungi.

(iii) The science which deals with heredity is known as genetics.

(iv) Insulin is used for the treatment of diabetes.

(v) Yuri Gagarin is the first space man.

(vi) Pluto is the farthest planet from the sun in Solar System.

(vii) The distance between the earth and the sun is called Astronomoical Unit.

(viii) The study of chemical processes of living organisms is called biochemistry.

(ix) The first computer virus invented by two Pakistani brothers is called the brain.

(x) Severe efficiency of vitamin C results in scurvy.


15. Differentiate between any five of the following.

(i) Artery and vein
(ii) Hard water and soft water
(iii) E-mail and Snail mail
(iv) Apes and monkey
(v) Hydrostatics and hydrodynamics
(vi) Comet and meteor
(vii) Barrage and dam
(viii) Electron and hole
(ix) Isobars and isotopes
(x) Autopsy and biopsy

Answers:

(i) Artery and vein:

Arteries:

Muscular blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart. All arteries, with the exception of the pulmonary and umbilical arteries, carry oxygenated blood.

Vein:

A blood vessel that carries blood toward the heart. The majority of veins in the body carry low-oxygen blood from the tissues back to the heart; the exceptions being the pulmonary and umbilical veins which both carry oxygenated blood.


(ii) Hard water and soft water:

Hard water:

Water that has a high mineral content (contrast with soft water), usually consisting of calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+) ions, and possibly including other dissolved metals, bicarbonates, and sulfates. Calcium usually enters the water as either calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in the form of limestone and chalk, or calcium sulfate (CaSO4) in the form of other mineral deposits. The predominant source of magnesium is dolomite (CaMg(CO3)2). Hard water is generally not harmful.

Soft water:

The term used to describe types of water that contain few or no calcium or magnesium ions. The term is usually relative to hard water, which does contain significant amounts of such ions.


(iii) E-mail and Snail mail:

E-Mail:

Method of correspondence via the Internet; communication sent by electronic mail.

Snail Mail:

Regular mail, normal postal service (not electronic mail)


(iv) Apes and monkey:

A monkey is any member of either the New World monkeys or Old World monkeys, two of the three groupings of simian primates, the third group being the apes.


(v) Hydrostatics and hydrodynamics:

Hydrostatics:

Fluid statics (also called hydrostatics) is the science of fluids at rest, and is a sub-field within fluid mechanics

Hydrodynamics:

The branch of science concerned with forces acting on or exerted by fluids (especially liquids).


(vi) Comet and meteor:

Comet:

Any icy object that exists within the solar system. They are pieces of the primitive, unprocessed matter that formed the solar system 4.6 x 109 years ago. They are typically a few kilometers across and consist mainly of dust grains, frozen water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide; they contain many simple organic molecules.

Meteor:

A meteoroid is a small sand to boulder-sized particle of debris in the Solar system. The visible path of a meteoroid that enters Earth's (or another body's) atmosphere is a meteor, commonly called a "shooting star" or "falling star". Many meteors are part of a meteor shower.


(vii) Barrage and dam:

Barrage:

Not built at heights.
Pressure is not enough to produce electricity.
Only Canals are marked out of it.

Dam:

Built at heights.
Pressure is enough to move turbines so hydroelectricity is generated.


(viii) Electron and hole:

Electron:

They belong to the lepton family and are the negatively charged components of atoms (1.6 x10^-19 coulomb). In the simplest model of the atom, electrons are envisaged to move around the atomic nucleus in specified circular and elliptical orbits.

Electron Hole:

An electron hole is the conceptual and mathematical opposite of an electron, useful in the study of physics and chemistry. The concept describes the lack of an electron. It is different from the positron, which is the antimatter duplicate of the electron.


(ix) Isobars and isotopes:

Isobars:

line on a weather map or chart that connects areas of equal barometric pressure

Isotopes:

Any of the several different forms of an element each having different atomic mass (mass number). Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons.

Or

Isotopes and Isobars:

The various nuclides, or species, of a particular chemical element with equal proton number (atomic number), but different neutron numbers were called isotopes of the element, before the more inclusive term "nuclide" was internationally accepted (ca. 1950. Such particular nuclides may still be called "isotopes." However, nuclides with equal mass number but different atomic number are called isobars (isobar = equal in weight), whereas Isotones are nuclides of equal neutron number but different proton numbers.


(x)Autopsy and biopsy:

Autopsy:

Postmortem, examination of a corpse to determine cause of death

Biopsy:

Removal and study of a tissue sample for diagnostic purposes




1. Discuss in brief, the contribution of Muslim scientists in the field of biological science.

2. Describe, in precise statements, various instruments which are being used in exploring the universe.

The universe can be explored by astronomical instruments called telescopes, and by space probes sent from earth to other planets. When using telescopes astronomers try to look at the energy being produced by the universe not just in the visible part of the spectrum (where our eyes can see) but at the whole range of electromagnetic radiation. We thus have radio telescopes, infrared telescopes, X-ray telescopes and even some telescopes that are burried deep underground looking for neutrinos.

Various Instruments

The most notable Universe exploring instruments may be as follows

1- The Hubble Space Telescope (HST)

The Hubble Space Telescope (HST) is a telescope in orbit around the Earth, named after astronomer Edwin Hubble. Its position outside the Earth's atmosphere provides significant advantages over ground-based telescopes — images are not blurred by the atmosphere, there is no background from light scattered by the air, and the Hubble can observe ultra-violet light that is normally absorbed by the ozone layer in observations made from Earth. Since its launch in 1990, it has become one of the most important instruments in the history of astronomy. With it, astronomers have made many observations leading to breakthroughs in astrophysics. Hubble's Ultra Deep Field is the most sensitive astronomical optical image ever taken.

2- Wilkinson Microwave Anisotropy Probe (WMAP)

The Wilkinson Microwave Anisotropy Probe (WMAP) is a NASA satellite mission led by Professor Charles L. Bennett of Johns Hopkins University, whose mission is to survey the sky to measure the temperature of the radiant heat left over from the Big Bang. The satellite was launched by a Delta II rocket on June 30, 2001, at 3:46 p.m. EDT from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station, Florida, USA

3. Explain the Solar System and the unifying characteristics which the Sun and its planets have.

4. How the solar and lunar eclipses are caused?

5. What is Ozonoshpere? Discuss the human technologies which are causing its depletion. What harm to man this depletive state would cause?

Ozonosphere

A layer in the stratosphere (at approximately 20 miles) that contains a concentration of ozone sufficient to block most ultraviolet radiation from the sun

The ozone layer is a layer in Earth's atmosphere which contains relatively high concentrations of ozone (O3). This layer absorbs 97-99% of the sun's high frequency ultraviolet light which is potentially damaging to life on Earth. Over 90% of ozone in earth's atmosphere is present here. "Relatively high" means a few parts per million—much higher than the concentrations in the lower atmosphere but still small compared to the main components of the atmosphere. It is mainly located in the lower portion of the stratosphere from approximately 15 km to 35 km above Earth's surface, though the thickness varies seasonally and geographically.

The ozone layer was discovered in 1913 by the French physicists Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson. Its properties were explored in detail by the British meteorologist G. M. B. Dobson, who developed a simple spectrophotometer that could be used to measure stratospheric ozone from the ground. Between 1928 and 1958 Dobson established a worldwide network of ozone monitoring stations which continues to operate today. The "Dobson unit", a convenient measure of the total amount of ozone in a column overhead, is named in his honor.

Depletion of the ozone

Only a few factors combine to create the problem of ozone layer depletion. The production and emission of CFCs, chlorofluorocarbons, is by far the leading cause.

Many countries have called for the end of CFC production because only a few produce the chemical. However, those industries that do use CFCs do not want to discontinue usage of this highly valuable industrial chemical.
CFCs are used in industry in a variety of ways and have been amazingly useful in many products. Discovered in the 1930s by American chemist Thomas Midgley, CFCs came to be used in refrigerators, home insulation, plastic foam, and throwaway food containers.

Only later did people realize the disaster CFCs caused in the stratosphere. There, the chlorine atom is removed from the CFC and attracts one of the three oxygen atoms in the ozone molecule. The process continues, and a single chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 molecules of ozone.
In 1974, Sherwood Rowland and Mario Molina followed the path of CFCs. Their research proved that CFCs were entering the atmosphere, and they concluded that 99% of all CFC molecules would end up in the stratosphere.
Only in 1984, when the ozone layer hole was discovered over Antarctica, was the proof truly conclusive. At that point, it was hard to question the destructive capabilities of CFCs.

Even if CFCs were banned, problems would remain. There would still be no way to remove the CFCs that are now present in the environment. Clearly though, something must be done to limit this international problem in the future.

Harm to the Humanity

Even minor problems of ozone depletion can have major effects. Every time even a small amount of the ozone layer is lost, more ultraviolet light from the sun can reach the Earth.

Every time 1% of the ozone layer is depleted, 2% more UV-B is able to reach the surface of the planet. UV-B increase is one of the most harmful consequences of ozone depletion because it can cause skin cancer.
The increased cancer levels caused by exposure to this ultraviolet light could be enormous. The EPA estimates that 60 million Americans born by the year 2075 will get skin cancer because of ozone depletion. About one million of these people will die.

In addition to cancer, some research shows that a decreased ozone layer will increase rates of malaria and other infectious diseases. According to the EPA, 17 million more cases of cataracts can also be expected.
The environment will also be negatively affected by ozone depletion. The life cycles of plants will change, disrupting the food chain. Effects on animals will also be severe, and are very difficult to foresee.

Oceans will be hit hard as well. The most basic microscopic organisms such as plankton may not be able to survive. If that happened, it would mean that all of the other animals that are above plankton in the food chain would also die out. Other ecosystems such as forests and deserts will also be harmed.

The planet's climate could also be affected by depletion of the ozone layer. Wind patterns could change, resulting in climatic changes throughout the world.

6. Describe the principle and make up of a Television.

Almost all TVs in use today rely on a device known as the cathode ray tube, or CRT, to display their images. In a cathode ray tube, the "cathode" is a heated filament (not unlike the filament in a normal light bulb). The heated filament is in a vacuum created inside a glass "tube." The "ray" is a stream of electrons that naturally pour off a heated cathode into the vacuum.



Electrons are negative. The anode is positive, so it attracts the electrons pouring off the cathode. In a TV's cathode ray tube, the stream of electrons is focused by a focusing anode into a tight beam and then accelerated by an accelerating anode. This tight, high-speed beam of electrons flies through the vacuum in the tube and hits the flat screen at the other end of the tube. This screen is coated with phosphor, which glows when struck by the beam.

7. What is escape velocity? How the Satellites are launched and what are their uses?

Escape Velocity

In physics, escape velocity is the speed where the kinetic energy of an object is equal in magnitude to its potential energy in a gravitational field. It is commonly described as the speed needed to "break free" from a gravitational field. On the surface of the Earth, the escape velocity is about 11.2 kilometers per second

How are satellites launched?

Most satellites are sent into orbit either on rockets or expendable launch vehicles, which fall into the ocean once they've used up all their fuel. Some, such as the Hubble Space Telescope, are launched via the USA's Space Shuttle which returns to Earth after each mission and is reused.
The trick when launching a satellite is to get it high enough to do its job without losing the capsule to outer space. It's a delicate balance of push and pull, accomplished by the inertia of the moving object and the Earth's gravity. If you launch a satellite at 17,000 mph, the forward momentum will balance gravity, and it will circle the earth. On the other hand, if the satellite is launched faster then 23,500 mph, it will leave the gravitational pull of the Earth.

Why does a satellite stay in orbit?

Due to the balance of two factors:
1. velocity, or the speed at which it would travel in a straight line, and
2. the gravitational pull between the Earth and the satellite.




Satellites are used almost every day by everyone. Even though you can't see it, there will probably be one traveling above you today. Satellites are used for many things such as communication, oceanography, astronomy, surveillance, and a variety of other things as well . They help many scientists get a perceptive view at all kinds of objects anywhere in the world.

8. Explain Earthquakes and volcanoes. How volcanoes help in the formation of earth crust?

9. How characters are transmitted from parents to offspring?

10. Describe the function of kidneys in the human body.

11. What are the deficiency effects of the following nutrients in the human body?

a) Iron
Iron Deficiency Anemia

b) Iodine
Goiter

c) Fluoride
May cause increased dental caries and possibly osteoporosis

d) Vitamin A
Vitamin A is essential for night vision and improves effectiveness of the immune system. Its deficiency also causes retarded growth, Night blindness and susceptibility to infection. It can be found in many dairy products, and especially in carrots.

e) Vitamin D
Essential part of the diet required in the absorption of minerals in food, where a lack of vitamin D in the diet leads to a condition called rickets, where softening of the bones cause them to bend from the lack of calcium. Its deficiency also causes osteomalacia in the adults. Humans have the ability to synthesize vitamin D from sunlight.

12. What are the constituents of human blood and their characteristics?

13. Differentiate between

a) Neuron and neutron
b) Meiosis and mitosis
c) Heavy water and hard water
d) Climate and weather
e) Isotopes and isobars

14. Fill in the blanks

a) Plant cells manufacture their food due to the presence of ____________ (chlorophyll, vacuole, cell wall)

b) The mitochondria in a cell are the constituent of the ____________ (nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane)

c) Mitosis is a type of cell division wherein the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell is the ____________ (same, half, double)

d) Blood cells are of ____________ types (two, three, four)



Platelet is actually a fragment of the large bone marrow cells known as megakaryocytes

e) The ____________ causes sunburn and suntan (ultraviolet rays, alpha particles, gama radiation)

15. Which of the following statements are false or true. Write only true of false in the answer book. Do not reproduce the questions.

a) Xylem and Phloem are conducting tissues. (True)
b) Carbohydrates are cheapest and most ready source of energy. (True)
c) Enzymes are responsible for chemical digestion of food. (True)
d) Plasma is the fluid part of the blood in which the cells are suspended. (True).
e) Hemoglobin combines with oxygen and transport to different cells of the body. (True)
f) Neutron is the negative charged particles in an atom. (False)
g) Helium is the lightest gas. (True)
h) Venus is the smallest planet of the solar system. (False)
i) Image of an object is formed on the retina of the eye. (True)
j) Barometer is used for measuring the current. (False)